BUS 130 Test 2

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Which of the following is typically included in the PLANNING STAGE of writing an effective business message?
Question 1 options:
A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone

B) making the message easy to read

C) making the message easy to navigate

D) ensuring that the communication is fair

E) identifying the primary message and key points

E) identifying the PRIMARY message and key POINTS

Which of the following is typically included in the DRAFTING STAGE of writing an effective business message?
Question 2 options:
A) Setting a positive and other-oriented tone

B) double-checking everything

C) sending the message to be proofread

D) identifying the primary message and key points

E) ensuring the communication is fair

A) SETTING a positive and other-oriented tone

Which of the following is something an EXCELLENT BUSINESS writer would do?
Question 3 options:
A) spend more time planning than drafting

B) decide on a message-centered approach

C) do the audience analysis during the drafting stage

D) do a last-minute review of his or her work

E) maintain an author-centered tone

A) SPEND MORE TIME planning than drafting

ALAN is mentoring Pat, a younger colleague, in how to be a better business writer. As Pat was writing her last memo, she did the following things. Which one will Alan tell her she needs to change?
Question 4 options:
A) Pat addressed the needs of her audience in the memo.

B) Pat spent a long time planning before she started to write.

C) Pat applied the FAIR test to the memo when she reviewed it.

D) Pat made sure the memo is easy to read and easy to navigate.

E) Pat drew primarily on her own opinions and expertise.

E) PAT DREW primarily on her own opinions and expertise.

Which of the following is one of the three-components of the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?
Question 5 options:
A) message review

B) message structuring

C) idea analysis

D) inductive structure

E) analysis of the medium

B) MESSAGE structuring

Which of the following is the FIRST STEP in the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?
Question 6 options:
A) idea development

B) message structuring

C) audience analysis

D) message review

E) idea analysis

C) Audience Analysis

How should writers CONSIDER the priorities of their targeted audience during the planning process for effective business messages?
Question 7 options:

A) Do not consider the priorities as they tend to fluctuate.

B) Recognize that priorities shift less often than values.

C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.

D) Refer to the enduring beliefs and ideals that individuals in the audience hold.

E) Remember that priorities remain constant for each individual.

C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.

In the COURSE of creating an effective business message, excellent business thinkers are most likely to
Question 8 options:

A) gather information from one strong source rather than from a variety of sources.

B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.

C) begin jotting down a rough draft right away to capture their ideas.

D) encourage one-way linear thinking and a rigid approach to business problems.

E) avoid using the other-oriented tone in their text.

B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.

FACTS are statements that
Question 9 options:

A) are subjective and differ from situation to situation.

B) are based on assumptions.

C) can be relied on with a fair amount of certainty.

D) are fictitious in nature.

E) are inherently ambiguous in nature.

C) can be RELIED on with a fair amount of certainty.

Analyzing a business PROBLEM typically involves
Question 10 options:

A) ignoring audience constraints.

B) deducing conclusions from facts.

C) imposing your priorities on the situation.

D) exaggerating the problem.

E) being flexible and not taking positions.

B) DEDUCING conclusions from facts.

At glaciers inc.., the management wanted to introduce a new medical insurance program for its employees. They appointed Laura to analyze the pros and cons of the idea. Laura conducted thorough research and prepared a report based on her findings. Before doing any writing, she stated her view in a SHORT, MEMORABLE STATEMENT of less than 15 words, known as a(n)
Question 11 options:

A) call to action.

B) primary message.

C) thesis statement.

D) overarching theme.

E) supporting sentence.

B) primary message

For the past couple of months, many employees working at Exterior Inc. have been quitting their jobs. Jason from the human resources department is given the responsibility of analyzing the reasons behind this problem. After conducting a thorough research, Jason finds that the employees were not happy with their salary and hence had no motivation to work. How will Jason structure his MESSAGE if he wants to use the deductive, or direct, APPROACH?
Question 12 options:

A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message

B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action

C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message

D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons

E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons

B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to Action

Most business ARGUMENTS employ a deductive approach. When employing this approach you are most likely to
Question 13 options:

A) avoid stating your position regarding any business issue.

B) provide supporting reasons first followed by the primary message.

C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a recommendation.

D) begin by making a call to action for your audience to follow.

E) begin by stating the supporting reasons followed by your call to action.

C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a RECOMMENDATION.

The DIFFERENCE between the DEDUCTIVE approach and the INDUCTIVE approach is that
Question 14 options:

A) in the inductive approach, the order of supporting ideas is unimportant.

B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.

C) in the deductive approach, the supporting reasons follow the call to action.

D) in the deductive approach, positions are based on assumptions, not facts.

E) in the deductive approach, the business argument concludes with the primary message.

B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.

What do the deductive approach and inductive approach to STRUCTURING business messages have in COMMON?
Question 15 options:

A) In both, the call to action comes in the middle.

B) In both, the supporting ideas come last.

C) In both, the arrangement of supporting ideas is important.

D) In both, the primary message comes first.

E) In both, the call to action must be 15 words or less.

C) In both, the arrangement of SUPPORTING ideas is important.

OMAR is the marketing manager at PLM. In his market survey, he finds that customers are not happy with PLM’s inefficient customer service. How will Omar STRUCTURE his message if he wants to use the inductive, or indirect, approach?
Question 16 options:

A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message

B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action

C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message

D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons

E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons

C) lay out the SUPPORTING reasons in careful order; state the primary message

Lorraine, the HR manager at BGH Garden Pot Manufacturing, analyzes the problem of increasing employee turnover and concludes that upgrading the employee benefit programs would help control the situation. While preparing her report, Lorraine states that upgrading the company’s employee benefit program would reduce employee turnover because a nearby large investment firm used the same strategy to solve a similar problem. However Lorraine’s message failed to convince the decision makers at BGH. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason behind this failure?
Question 17 options:

A) slanting of facts

B) exaggeration

C) unsupported generalization

D) weak analogy

E) faulty cause/effect argument

D) weak analogy

JORGE, the shipping manager at Durable Products, writes a MEMO proposing that that they stop using RoadHog Trucking Company and ship everything by L.B. Haines. The reason he gives is that two of the accounts that have been shipping by L.B. Haines during the last year increased their orders by more than 10%, so he is certain that switching trucking firms will cause other accounts to grow too. The executives of the company do not accept Jorge’s suggestion. Why was his memo unconvincing?
Question 18 options:

A) slanting of facts

B) exaggeration

C) either/or logic

D) weak analogy

E) faulty cause/effect argument

E) faulty cause/effect argument

SALINA, the expeditor at RingPro Gasket Manufacturer, writes a memo asking her manager to buy her a new computerized system for tracking customer orders. She claims that if she does not get this system, chronically late deliveries will ensue. Her manager turns down her request. Salina made the MISTAKE of using
Question 19 options:

A) either/or logic.

B) an indirect structure.

C) an unsupported generalization.

D) a weak analogy.

E) you-voice.

A) either/or logic.

Chris, an editorial manager at Better Textbooks, Inc., wants to ELIMINATE his copy EDITING department and outsource the work to a company in India. In his proposal, he states, "Doing so will revolutionize our workflow and save us untold thousands of dollars." The EDITORIAL director calls Chris into his office and informs him that his memo is not credible. What mistake did Chris make?
Question 20 options:

A) either/or logic

B) exaggeration

C) unsupported generalization

D) weak analogy

E) faulty cause/effect argument

B) EXAGGERATION

DERIK has been given the responsibility of analyzing how counseling programs can reduce problem behavior among employees in his company. After much research, he discovers that counseling has several benefits. Employees exhibiting problem behavior often respond positively to counseling. They are likely to be more motivated and meet performance standards after the counseling sessions. Considering this information, identify the statement that clearly EXAGGERATES what Derik has found.
Question 21 options:

A) Employees exhibiting problem behavior are most likely to respond positively to counseling.

B) Counseling always dramatically improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior.

C) Counseling can contribute toward increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior.

D) The issue of problem behavior among employees can be improved through counseling.

E) Counseling is one of the ways of increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior.

B) Counseling ALWAYS DRAMATICALLY improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior.

______ is the overall evaluation that A reader perceives the writer to have toward the reader and the message content.
Question 22 options:

A) Tone

B) Framework

C) Structure

D) Layout

E) Outline

A) Tone

In all business messages, communicators should ideally AIM AT
Question 23 options:

A) effectively using either/or arguments.

B) slanting facts to their benefit.

C) projecting positivity.

D) appropriately exaggerating facts.

E) avoiding the other-oriented approach.

C) projecting POSITIVITY.

In order to make business messages more positive, business writers should focus on actions they can accomplish and demonstrate a REALISTIC optimism. However they should be careful
Question 24 options:

A) not to set unrealistic expectations.

B) to avoid diplomatic terms.

C) not to use too-strong analogies.

D) to avoid generalizations.

E) not to send meta messages.

A) not to set unREALISTIC expectations.

Carlton finds that a geographic restructuring would have a positive effect on his insurance company and increase its efficiency. He draws up a report for the board of directors in which he mentions that separate departments should be set up for each of the company’s 10 sales territories. Which of the following statements is most likely to increase the positivity of HIS PROPOSITION?
Question 25 options:

A) Let me know if you want to work on changing the structure of the company.

B) Using a geographic structure will not guarantee that the company’s productivity increases.

C) Geographic restructuring is not likely to reduce the company’s overall costs.

D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.

E) A geographic structure might possibly have a positive effect on the company.

D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.

In CONTENT and form, a business message should typically
Question 26 options:

A) avoid any form of self-centeredness.

B) exaggerate facts.

C) avoid using diplomatic terms.

D) avoid using strong analogies.

E) slant facts skillfully.

A) avoid any form of self-CENTEREDness.

Extensive use of the I-VOICE in a business message
Question 27 options:

A) fails to indicate that the writer cares about the interest of the audience.

B) increases the positivity of the message.

C) reveals that the writer has slanted the facts.

D) emphasizes that the writer understands the concerns of the reader.

E) indicates that the writer uses faulty either/or logic.

A) fails to indicate that the writer CARES about the interest of the audience.

The use of WE-VOICE in a business message
Question 28 options:

A) fails to reflect the interests of the audience.

B) indicates that the writer has not reached any conclusions.

C) decreases the credibility of the message.

D) emphasizes the writer’s shared interests with the reader.

E) indicates that the writer is slanting the message.

D) EMPHASIZES the writer’s SHARED interests with the reader.

Which of the following is most likely to show that the writer of a business message has CONCERN for the audience?
Question 29 options:

A) relying heavily on the I-voice

B) presenting exaggerated facts to the audience

C) respecting the autonomy of the reader

D) presenting slanted facts to the audience

E) giving credit to any sources used

C) RESPECTING the autonomy of the reader

Sending MIXED SIGNALS is most likely to
Question 30 options:

A) result in positive meta messages.

B) increase the flexibility of encoding and decoding.

C) cause the reader to feel confused.

D) resolve the conflict between the content and tone of a message.

E) increase the credibility of a message.

C) cause the reader to feel CONFUSED.

In order to ENSURE the COMPLETENESS of a business message, one should
Question 31 options:

A) be specific.

B) avoid empty phrases.

C) avoid redundancies.

D) control paragraph length.

E) use action verbs.

A) be SPECIFIC.

In the context of creating a complete BUSINESS MESSAGE, which of the following is true?
Question 32 options:

A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a business document down.

B) Using action verbs focuses on the goal of coordinating action in the workplace and livens up your writing.

C) Using longer, more unusual words to "sound smart" can increase the credibility of your message.

D) Using the passive voice allows for faster processing by the readers, because most people naturally think in that structure.

E) Relying on parallel language can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver.

A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a BUSINESS DOCUMENT down.

Which of the following GUIDELINES should be FOLLOWED to ensure that you are creating a complete business message?
Question 33 options:

A) Use longer, more unusual words to "sound smart" and increase the credibility of your message.

B) Avoid parallel language as it can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver.

C) Include all the information you need by eliminating as much white space as possible.

D) Plan, write, and review your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.

E) Use the active voice to avoid blaming others or sounding too bossy.

D) PLAN, WRITE AND REVIEW your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.

Which of the following is most likely to NEGATIVELY INFLUENCE readers’ perceptions of your CREDIBILITY?
Question 34 options:

A) long paragraphs

B) inaccurate statements

C) generous white space

D) passive voice

E) parallel language

B) INACCURATE statements

Which of the following is most likely to POSITIVELY INFLUENCE your readers’ perceptions of your credibility?
Question 35 options:

A) being wordy

B) being specific

C) using buzzwords

D) starting sentences with "There are"

E) using prepositional phrases

B) being specific

Neta believes it is a good idea to write business messages using generalities that will appeal to a broad readership. How is this practice likely to AFFECT Neta’s readers?
Question 36 options:

A) They may doubt her competence.

B) They will read the message carefully.

C) They will find the information they need.

D) They will be assured that she is not hiding facts.

E) They will focus on the primary message.

A) They may doubt her competence.

Akram recently learned that his manager believes he was trying to hide the truth about his department’s EXPENSES in his last report. How can Akram revise his report to avoid giving that impression?
Question 37 options:

A) Shorten his paragraphs.

B) Avoid using buzzwords.

C) Use specific numbers and facts.

D) Avoid using unfamiliar words.

E) Decrease his use of white space.

C) Use specific NUMBERS and facts.

The management at Lavender GARMET MANUFACTURING company conducted a survey with the intention of standardizing their employees’ productivity to increase company profits. Based on their findings, they set their standards and circulated the following instructions, "Every employee should manufacture as many shirts AS POSSIBLE." However, this failed to clearly deliver the intended message of standardization. Which of the following would correct the problem?
Question 38 options:

A) Every employee should maximize the workflow of his or her station.

B) As many shirts as possible should be made by each employee.

C) All workers and employees should manufacture as many shirts or garments as possible.

D) Every employee should manufacture a minimum of three shirts an hour.

E) Needless to say, every employee should manufacture as many shirts as possible every day.

D) Every employee should manufacture A MINIMUM of three shirts an hour.

In the context of business messages, CONCISENESS implies
Question 39 options:

A) removing relevant information.

B) omitting needless words.

C) omitting parallel structure.

D) removing white space.

E) removing paragraph breaks.

B) omitting NEEDLESS words.

One way to solve the problem of overly LENGTHY paragraphs is to
Question 40 options:

A) include more figures of speech.

B) focus on one idea or topic in each paragraph.

C) use passive voice instead of active.

D) start more sentences with "There is."

E) replace verbs with prepositional phrases.

B) FOCUS on one idea or topic in each paragraph.

Julio has a long paragraph that describes the TWO MAIN CAUSES of employee absenteeism and gives a suggestion to address each cause. Ideally, how many paragraphs does Julio need to cover this material?
Question 41 options:

A) one

B) two

C) three

D) four

E) five

D) four (INTRO, CAUSE 1, CAUSE 2, CON.)

As a rule of thumb, for ROUTINE MESSAGES, the sentence length should be no more than
Question 42 options:

A) 8 words.

B) 15 words.

C) 20 words.

D) 25 words.

E) 30 words.

B) 15 words

Consider the following statement: "Employee managers can use our MOTIVATIONAL tools to MOTIVATE their employees to increase productivity." The best way to make this statement concise is by
Question 43 options:

A) changing the passive voice.

B) removing empty phrases.

C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb.

D) starting with "It is" or "There are."

E) removing any redundant words.

E) removing any REDUNDANT words.

Consider the statement: "As most of you know, Mega Manufacturing had its most profitable year ever last year." One way to make this statement more concise is by
Question 44 options:

A) changing the passive voice.

B) removing empty phrases.

C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb.

D) starting with "It is" or "There are."

E) removing any redundant words.

B) removing empty phrases.

It becomes easier for YOUR readers to process the information YOU present when you
Question 45 options:

A) match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk.

B) use prepositional phrases extensively as they increase the clarity of the message.

C) choose long and obscure words to pique their curiosity.

D) avoid using parallel language, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the information provided.

E) include a lot of text in your message and very little white space.

A) MATCH YOUR writing style to the way YOUR readers think and talk.

Which statement about active voice and passive voice is true?
Question 46 options:

A) The active voice diverts attention from the doer.

B) People tend to think in a doer-action-object pattern.

C) The active voice is best when you do not want to attribute blame.

D) People tend to sound bossy when using the passive voice.

E) The passive voice places the object first.

B) People tend to think in a DOER-action-object pattern.

People are most likely to process information QUICKLY when writers use
Question 47 options:

A) prepositional phrases.

B) action verbs.

C) the passive voice.

D) complex words.

E) long sentences.

B) ACTION verbs.

To create a more NATURAL writing style and improve the ease of reading, a writer should use
Question 48 options:

A) passive verbs.

B) parallel language.

C) the passive voice.

D) figures of speech.

E) buzzwords.

B) parallel language.

Consider the following sentence: "CEO Mike Maloney regrets to announce that PharmCo will be downsizing at the end of September." Which of the following actions would improve the ease of reading?
Question 49 options:

A) Cut the prepositional phrase "at the end of September."

B) Change "at the end of September" to "at the end of the third quarter."

C) Change "PharmCo" to "PharmCo Drug and Pharmaceutical Company."

D) Change the buzzword "downsizing" to "laying off employees."

E) Change "CEO Mike Maloney" to "The CEO of PharmCo."

D) Change the buzzword "downsizing" to "laying off employees."

Using the ACTIVE voice while writing business messages
Question 50 options:

A) diverts the attention from the subject.

B) makes the writer sound less bossy.

C) allows for faster processing of the business message.

D) makes the message difficult to navigate.

E) is useful when the writer wants to avoid assigning blame.

C) allows for FASTER processing of the business message.

The use of FAMILIAR words in business messages is most likely to
Question 51 options:

A) distract attention from the message.

B) decrease the credibility of the message.

C) cause the readers’ attention to wander because of boredom.

D) decrease the specificity of the message.

E) help the readers to process the information easily.

E) HELP the readers to process the information EASILY.

Which statement about BUZZWORDS is true?
Question 52 options:

A) They make text more active.

B) They are trite due to overuse.

C) They have very technical meanings.

D) They shorten the length of the message.

E) They improve a message’s accuracy.

B) They are trite due to OVERUSE.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of figures of speech, such as idioms and metaphors, in business writing?
Question 53 options:

A) They should be avoided because they lack specificity.

B) They send the signal that the writer is out of touch with the audience.

C) They are an effective way to write more concisely.

D) They should be avoided because they are too I-centered.

E) They are an effective way to make a message more natural.

A) They should be AVOIDED because they LACK SPECIFICITY.

Which of the following is most likely to improve the ease of navigation in INFORMATION-RICH and COMPLEX messages?
Question 54 options:

A) using headings to convey the contents of sections

B) avoiding the use of numbered or bulleted lists

C) using several different font styles in the document

D) using a new style of formatting for each section

E) avoiding the use of too much white space

A) using headings to convey the CONTENTS of sections

For most written business communications, the FIRST CONSIDERATION should be to
Question 55 options:

A) present the message in a visually appealing manner.

B) get the message across in an easy-to-read manner.

C) select the facts in a persuasive manner.

D) construct the message in passive voice.

E) demonstrate how much of an expert you are.

B) GET THE MESSAGE ACROSS in an easy-to-read manner.

Which of the following choices is a COMPONENT of the REVIEWING PROCESS?
Question 56 options:

A) audience analysis

B) identifying the primary message

C) determining the key points

D) determining the message structure

E) conducting the FAIR test

E) CONDUTING the FAIR test

In the context of the reviewing process, the "R" in the FAIR test stands for _____.
Question 57 options:

A) revision

B) respect

C) relevancy

D) redundancy

E) repetition

B) respect

Which task are you most likely to do during the FINAL pass of PROOFREADING?
Question 58 options:

A) Check for grammatical errors.

B) Look for typographical mistakes.

C) Imagine how the audience will respond.

D) Ask yourself if you are confident in your facts.

E) See if you have made logical errors.

B) LOOK for typographical mistakes.

Kwame has written a memo expressing his concern that the company has opened itself up to a DISCRIMINATION SUIT because it sponsors a men’s softball team but not a women’s sports team. Which of the following people should Kwame ask to give feedback about the wording of his memo before he sends it to the executive committee?
Question 59 options:

A) a colleague in the Finance Department

B) a colleague in the Legal Department

C) a colleague in the Purchasing Department

D) a colleague in the Shipping Department

E) a colleague in the Public Relations Department

B) a colleague in the LEGAL Department

Ashley has written a report proposing that her company subsidize employees who take PUBLIC transportation. One of her main supporting points is that the program would help the company’s reputation because it is a green initiative. Which of the following people should Ashley ask for feedback about that part of the proposal?
Question 60 options:

A) an executive in the Finance Department

B) an executive in the Legal Department

C) an executive in the Human Resources Department

D) an executive in the Research and Development Department

E) an executive in the Public Relations Department

E) an executive in the PUBLIC Relations Department

When CHOOSING a communication channel, ______ refers to the degree to which communications can be planned and recorded, thus allowing strategic message development.
Question 61 options:

A) richness

B) immediacy

C) constraint

D) coordination

E) control

E) control

Angel PREFERS written communication because she can BRAINSTORM, DRAFT, EDIT, revise, and otherwise develop her message before delivering it. Which aspect of communication does she value?
Question 62 options:

A) permanence

B) immediacy

C) planning

D) richness

E) coordination

C) planning

Bao is conducting a study that compares the cost of KEEPING print messages on file versus storing digital messages in the cloud. What aspect of communications relates to the storage of messages?
Question 63 options:

A) coordination

B) planning

C) constraint

D) permanence

E) richness

D) permanence

Rick is trying to schedule a video teleconference with colleagues at several locations. To do so, he needs to coordinate their SCHEDULES and also CHECK TO SEE if the company needs to invest in any additional resources to make it happen. By addressing coordination and resource issues, he is dealing with
Question 64 options:

A) constraint.

B) control.

C) immediacy.

D) permanence.

E) richness.

A) constraint

Which of the following deals with how QUICKLY someone is able to give feedback during communication?
Question 65 options:

A) coordination

B) immediacy

C) cue

D) permanence

E) richness

B) immediacy

Maya’s virtual team includes editors in the United States, designers in Italy, and fact checkers in India. Maya wants the team to discuss the development process for their next book. Which communication channel will best allow team members to consider what they say, to respond in a way that is comfortable, and to fit the DISCUSSION IN THEIR SCHEDULES?
Question 66 options:

A) a conference call

B) a videoconference

C) an electronic discussion thread

D) a series of print memos

E) a series of one-to-one phone calls

C) an electronic discussion thread

Which of the following facilitates a one-stop work space containing project and meeting information, SHARED FILES, and COMMUNICATION platforms?
Question 67 options:

A) texting

B) written messages

C) webinar

D) social networking

E) email

D) social networking

Ismail needs to let Felicia know that the FUNDS FOR HER PET PROJECT have been SLASHED. Which communication channel should Ismail use?
Question 68 options:

A) email

B) written message

C) social networking

D) texting

E) spoken communication

E) spoken communication

Craig is the sales manager at Blaize Supersports and has a 20-member sales team. During an average day, Craig receives about 115 emails and sends out 75 emails. James, a salesperson at the store, is typing an email to Craig. James wants to take a week off to spend time with his family. Which of the following is true concerning the SUB JECT LINE of James’s email?
Question 69 options:

A) The email does not need a subject line because it comes from one of Craig’s staff.

B) It should include only the number of days and dates of his vacation.

C) It should include James’s name, department details, and employee identification number.

D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as "James requests time off."

E) It should include an attention-getting phrase such as "Urgent Staff Issue."

D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as "James requests time off.

Judging only by LENGTH, which of the following is the best subject line for an email?
Question 70 options:

A) Why?

B) Last month

C) The reason why we should consider implementing this marketing plan is its many benefits.

D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00

E) So, here it goes

D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be placed in the SUBJECT LINE of an email?
Question 71 options:

A) an expected action

B) a signature block

C) a list of attachments

D) a professional tagline

E) the recipient’s name

A) an expected action

Which of the following is most likely to be included in the SIGNATURE BLOCK of an email?
Question 72 options:

A) a list of attachments

B) an expected action

C) statistical data

D) contact details

E) the names of all the recipients

D) contact details

Which of the following GUIDELINES best ensures that your email is easy to read?
Question 73 options:

A) Include a subject line that is at least 20 words long.

B) Make each paragraph in your message at least 80 words long.

C) Avoid the inclusion of attachments.

D) Avoid stating expected actions explicitly.

E) Provide a descriptive signature block.

E) Provide a descriptive signature block.

When Sherry sends task-oriented emails to colleagues, she always tells them the deadline for the tasks and details about when she is available to talk or meet. What conclusion are Sherry’s colleagues likely to draw from this?
Question 74 options:

A) Sherry holds an important place in the organization.

B) Sherry is arrogant and bossy.

C) Sherry respects their time and other commitments.

D) Sherry packs unnecessary information in her messages.

E) Sherry has leadership potential.

C) Sherry RESPECTS their time and other commitments.

What should you do when you CANNOT RESPOND to a request made in an email?
Question 75 options:

A) Log off the system so the sender will assume that you are offline.

B) Set up an automated response to say that you are out of town.

C) Inform the sender that you are busy and cannot reply straightaway.

D) Reply immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.

E) Ignore the email for now and reply when you can.

D) REPLY immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.

Paul always hits "reply to all" whenever he answers a team email, even if the email was a question posed by one other person and directed only to Paul. When he initiates an email about his project, he sends it to everyone in his DEPARTMENT. Judging only from this information, what impact does Paul have on his department’s communications?
Question 76 options:

A) He is spreading confidential information to unauthorized people.

B) He is making everyone in his department feel included as part of the team.

C) He is helping make the department work more efficiently.

D) He is ensuring that each person on the team clearly knows his or her assignment.

E) He is contributing to email overload in his department.

E) He is contributing to EMAIL OVERLOAD in his DEPARTMENT.

Which of the following is a reason why greetings and names are OMITTED from emails?
Question 77 options:

A) People do not like being greeted or having their names used very often.

B) Omitting names and greetings saves space and keeps many emails on one screen.

C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of memos, which traditionally omit names and greetings.

D) Most people are emotionally uninvolved at work and are not inclined toward greeting others.

E) Since emails are typically forwarded to several other people, it is inappropriate to name only one recipient.

C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of MEMOS, which traditionally OMIT names and greetings.

Which of the following is an example of the neutrality effect?
Question 78 options:

A) George writes an email in which he intends to express a negative emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.

B) Sue writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.

C) Ali writes an email in which he intends to express a neutral emotion, and readers decode it as neutral.

D) Rand writes an email that he intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as negative.

E) Cora writes an email that she intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as positive.

B) SUE writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.

Clement, a customer service representative at Sarah’s Supermart, has a tough time handling customers during his first week on the job. Carlo, Clement’s colleague, guides him through this difficult period. Afterward, Clement writes Carlo an email to thank him warmly for his help. Carlo NEITHER REACTS NOR REPLIES. Carlo’s behavior is an example of
Question 79 options:

A) negativity effect.

B) neutrality effect.

C) active incivility.

D) defusing.

E) constraint.

B) neutrality effect.

Dave sends an email to his colleague, Stan, asking for important details about an ongoing project. Stan is on a business trip and finds no time to reply to all of Dave’s queries. Dave wrongly perceives that Stan is ignoring him. Which of the following should Dave do?
Question 80 options:

A) Because Stan is indulging in cyber silence, Dave should retort with flames.

B) Dave should inform their manager about his complaints against Stan.

C) Because Stan is on a business trip, Dave should not bother him even if the project falls behind.

D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply.

E) Dave should ignore Stan’s emails when Stan finally replies.

D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply.

One possible negative effect of texting is that
Question 81 options:

A) the brevity of texts can make them sound bossy.

B) texts are an inherently serious channel.

C) texts do not convey meta messages.

D) the format of texts is not good for positive news.

E) texts cannot be sent to a group.

A) the brevity of texts can make them sound BOSSY.

Hannah is in the middle of writing a report, and she does not want to disrupt the flow of her work by walking over to the department bookcase to double check the name of their main competitor’s product. She decides to text Joe, who sits next to the bookcase, to ask him to do it. Because of repeated incidents like this, Hannah is likely to be seen as
Question 82 options:

A) efficient.

B) a team player.

C) a contributor.

D) busy.

E) a taker.

E) a taker.

Frequent incoming messages can
Question 83 options:

A) increase productivity.

B) increase attention spans.

C) reduce creativity.

D) reduce stress.

E) improve civility.

C) reduce creativity.

Which of the following can help keep email-induced distractions at bay?
Question 84 options:

A) checking your messages once an hour

B) checking your messages at the end of the day

C) checking your messages once a week and using an automated message to indicate that

D) checking your messages just two to four times a day

E) checking your messages constantly to keep updated on the latest information

D) checking your messages just two to four times a day

Why are COMPANIES like Google and Microsoft joining the Overload RESEARCH Group?
Question 85 options:

A) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of individuals.

B) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of companies.

C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many e-interruptions.

D) It is a service that searches a company’s emails to reduce overload by destroying duplicates.

E) It is an organization trying to train workers to have better attention spans.

C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many E-INTERRUPTIONS.

How is productivity affected when employees multitask?
Question 86 options:

A) Productivity increases by up to 80 percent.

B) Productivity increases by up to 40 percent.

C) Productivity remains the same.

D) Productivity drops by up to 40 percent.

E) Productivity drops by up to 85 percent.

D) Productivity DROPS by up to 40 percent.

Which of the following would help to REDUCE e-interruptions?
Question 87 options:

A) checking digital messages six to eight times a day at random

B) turning on an automatic message that you are not answering emails all day

C) replying immediately to all messages to get them out of the way

D) using rich channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely

E) adding colleagues to an email chain so they can answer the messages

D) using RICH channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely

When preparing for a business phone call, you should do many of the same things you do for
Question 88 options:

A) an email.

B) a meeting.

C) texting.

D) a webinar.

E) social media.

B) a meeting.

Which of the following is a helpful guideline for phone conversations with business colleagues?
Question 89 options:

A) Begin discussing business issues immediately after saying hello.

B) To keep a formal tone, avoid using the other person’s name.

C) Multitask as long as you can do so without the other person suspecting.

D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.

E) To avoid wasting your colleagues’ time, end without social niceties.

D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.

Which of the following is a helpful tip for using webcams during a group video call?
Question 90 options:

A) Make sure your background shows several objects relevant to the conversation.

B) Wear casual clothing that day to appear friendlier.

C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.

D) Be careful to tone down your facial expressions and gestures.

E) Sit slightly to one side so you can display visual aids if needed.

C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.

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