Biology II

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An ideal habitat with unlimited resources is associated with

Exponential growth.

The maximum population a habitat can support is its

Carrying capacity.

Logistic growth involves

Population growth slowing down as the population approaches carrying capacity.

In exponential growth

Population size grows faster and faster as the population gets bigger.

Which of the following would NOT cause population size to decrease?

Increased birth rate

Which of these species typically has a mortality rate that remains fairly constant over an individual’s life span?

robins

Oyster populations are primarily, if not exclusively, composed of _____.

adults

Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of oysters?

grasses

Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of humans?

elephants

Which of these was the first of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population?

the advent of agriculture

Which of these was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population?

the Industrial Revolution

Which of these was the third of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population?

the discovery of vaccines and the discovery of antibiotics

Currently, how large is the worldwide population of humans relative to Earth’s carrying capacity for humans?

There is insufficient information to answer this question.

The population of Greece is expected to _______.

decline

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than reproductive-age individuals.

False

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than elderly members of the population.

False

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more reproductive-age individuals than children.

True

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals.

True

Greece had more females than males in 2000. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this?

Males generally have a shorter life span than females.

The population of Colombia is currently _______.

expanding

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than reproductive-age individuals.

True

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than elderly members of the population.

True

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more reproductive-age individuals than children.

False

Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals.

False

The study of how organisms interact with one another and with their nonliving environment is

ecology.

The different species within an ecosystem that interact in various ways make up a(n)

community.

All members of a species that reside within an ecosystem make up a(n)

population.

Which species has the highest biotic potential?

A fungus that produces thousands of reproductive spores every day

The United States has the lowest replacement-level fertility (RLF) of the developed countries. True or False?

False

At present, Earth’s human population is

increasing exponentially.

A human eats a deer. Which of these terms applies to the relationship between the human and the deer?

predation

Humans and sharks both eat fish. Which of these terms applies to the relationship between the human and the shark?

competition

Humans who have pets tend to be healthier than humans who do not have pets. Which of these terms applies to the relationship between a human and a pet?

mutualism

Which of these terms applies to the relationship between a dog and a blood-sucking tick?

parasitism

Which of these is a starting point for primary succession?

a surface exposed by a retreating glacier

What does the y-axis show?

percentage of landscape occupied by a forest stage

What does the red graph line represent?

thinning stage

During which period were forest fires most extensive?

1700-1750

In 1770, how much of the landscape did the thinning stage occupy?

50%

Which of the following best describes the Yellowstone Plateau landscape in 1900?

More than half of the landscape was occupied by forests in which shade-tolerant trees were becoming established.

Is this statement supported or not supported by the graph?

supported

After the 1988 fires, scientists made careful observations of the changes on the Yellowstone Plateau. (The data they collected is not shown on this graph.) Given the historical data concerning succession and disturbance (fires), predict how the landscape in 2000 compared to the pre-1988-fire landscape.

Which statement is most likely to have described how the landscape changed in the 12 years after the 1988 fires?

The percentage of the landscape in old-growth stage forest decreased.

In an open and grassy pine savannah, fires _____.

prevent the development of a hardwood forest

Which of the following is a result of the prescribed burning of an open and grassy pine savannah?

less-intense natural wildfires

In a grassy pine savannah, a longer interval between prescribed burns typically leads to _____.

bigger woody species

What component of weather is watched most closely when determining when to conduct a prescribed burn?

relative humidity

Which one of the following statements about prescribed burns is true?

Some species of pine trees require fire to reproduce.

The biologist who studies interactions at the community level investigates interactions among

organisms of more than one species.

In mutualistic interactions, one species is harmed and one benefits. True or False?

False

The process by which two interacting species act as agents of natural selection on one another is called

coevolution

In a stable ecosystem, the number of predators is greater than the number of prey. True or False?

False

The concept that two species cannot occupy the same ecological niche at the same time is called

the competitive exclusion principle.

Two families of feral cats move into the same barn. One family preys on the mice; the other preys on the pigeons. This behavior is an example of

resource partitioning.

A keystone species is the most numerous species in an ecosystem. True or False?

False

Humans contract bacterial infections such as tuberculosis or syphilis. What is this ecological relationship called?

Parasitism

A species that plays a major role in determining the structure of its ecological community is

a keystone species.

A species that is a mimic may

have behavior similar to that of another species.

The biotic portion of an ecosystem includes the plants, animals, and water. True or False?

False

Two species that have a high degree of niche overlap will

compete intensely.

What percent of the plant species found on Madagascar are unique to that island?

80

The human population of Madagascar doubles about every _____ years.

25

What is a lemur?

a primate only found on Madagascar

Much of the original forest cover on Madagascar has been destroyed primarily as a result of _____.

burning for agricultural purposes

What is the cause of the red color of the waters about Madagascar?

soil that has washed into the ocean

________ takes into account both the biotic (living) communities and the abiotic (nonliving) environments on which the communities depend.

Ecosystem diversity

The term ________ refers to the ways in which ecosystems provide benefits to people, either directly or indirectly.

ecosystem services

The use of technology has reduced the ecological footprint of people in developed countries to less than that of people in developing countries. True or False?

False

Which of the following is NOT an example of how plant communities continue to support healthy ecosystems?

Plants increase levels of CO2, by releasing CO2 as a byproduct of photosynthesis.

Deforestation impacts the climate in what way?

Increasing the levels of carbon dioxide

Why is it important to preserve the genes of the wild relatives of crop plants?

Beneficial genes from the wild relatives may be transferred into crop plants.

Comparison of the human ecological footprint to Earth’s biocapacity suggests that

the human population cannot sustain its current level of resource usage.

The leading cause of extinction, by human activities, worldwide is

habitat fragmentation.

An introduced species is "invasive" if it

outcompetes native species in its new habitat.

Unsustainable farming practices include

using herbicides and pesticides.

The transition zone of a Biosphere Reserve is an area where

there are many human residents, and the goal is sustainable development.

_____ is the process by which two species act as forces of natural selection on one another.

coevolution

_____ is a phenomenon in which one species evolves to assume the appearance of another species.

mimicry

A _____ eats its prey and must kill to survive.

predator

A _____ lives on or inside of its host. It usually harms or weakens the host but does not immediately kill it.

parasite

_____ competition occurs between individuals of different species, whereas _____ competition occurs within the species.

interspecific, intraspecific

When all previous traces of life have been wiped out, the process of forming a new community is known as _____ succession.

primary

Each species occupies a unique ecological _____ that encompasses all aspects of its way of life, such as where it lives and what resources it consumes.

niche

Comparing growth curves

Drag the correct labels onto the graph showing two different patterns of population growth. Label the horizontal and vertical axes first.

a. exponential growth b. population size c. time d. carrying capacity e. logistic growth

Density-dependent and density-independent factors

Read the description below each image and determine whether it is an example of a density-dependent or density-independent factor.

Drag the correct label below each image. Labels can be used more than once.

a. Food availability = density dependent factor b. An oil spill effect = density independent factor c. Space limitations = density dependent factor d. Predation = density dependent factor

According to the data in Step 1, by how much would solar have to grow to match the current level of hydroelectric power?

about 60 times

According to the data in Step 2, which source represents 32% of renewables?

none of them

Which energy source’s annual growth rate is about four times greater than that of tidal power?

solar

Assuming that renewable energy sources will contribute more and more to power generation in the future, do you expect the growth rates for these renewable energy sources to increase or decrease over the next 30-year period (2000 to 2030)?

These growth rates are relative to small absolute numbers. They will most likely decrease as the total contribution by renewables increases.

Which projection has nonrenewables comprising roughly 50% of our energy production in 2050?

Projection 2

Assume that the depletion of nonrenewables requires renewables to account for more than 30% of our energy production by 2040. What annual growth rate of renewables must be achieved in order to meet that goal

at least 15% annual growth rate

The water reuse system on the campus of Georgia Southern University __________.

conserves water by using treated city wastewater instead of city tap water for irrigation

The bioenergy garden at Georgia Southern University is used to show plants that can be used __________.

as biofuels that will not add any extra carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

LEED standards in the construction of new buildings establishes criteria that __________.

conserve energy and water and improve indoor air quality

One common way to increase the sustainability of a food system is to buy and consume __________.

foods that are grown locally

What environmental problem is being addressed by the use of bio swales, large vegetated ditches or depressions, on the campus of Georgia Southern University?

the pollution of streams by oily runoff water from parking lots

Which of these cells is a phagocytic leukocyte that can engulf a foreign bacterium?

macrophage

_____ interact with the antigen-class II MHC complex presented by macrophages.

Helper T cells

B cells that have been stimulated by interleukin-2 develop into _____.

plasma cells

The role of cytotoxic T cells is the secretion of _____, which plays a role in the _____ immune response.

perforin … cell-mediated

Clonal selection is the division of _____ that have been stimulated by binding to an antigen, which results in the production of cloned _____.

B cells … plasma cells and memory cells

Which of these cells is responsible for the rapidity of the secondary immune response?

memory cells

Which of these cells produce and secrete antibodies?

plasma cells

Your body is unable to produce antibodies to ward off infection. You have a problem with which of the following?

B-cells

You are suffering from flu symptoms, including chills, fever, and fatigue. Which of the following cells are working overtime in your body?

T-cells

You are researching ways to insert DNA into cells in an effort to find a new treatment for lupus. Which of the following would likely be the best candidate for carrying the DNA?

a virus

Which of the following is a downside to the new leukemia treatment described?

The treatment also killed healthy cells.

Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged by this new treatment?

kidney

As a doctor, you discover a new virus that prevents the body from creating memory cells. Based on what you know about human defenses against disease, you predict that this virus is infecting and destroying which type of white blood cell?

Lymphocytes

This figure shows the structure of an antibody. Which part of the antibody binds to the antigen?

Region A

Nonspecific internal defenses include

inflammation.

HIV weakens a person’s ability to fight off other infections by infecting and destroying helper T cells. True or False?

True

How does the skin act as a barrier to microbial invasion?

Secretions from sweat glands and sebaceous glands inhibit bacterial growth.

Which of these immune cells are produced by the bone marrow?

Both B and T cells

MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins

mark cells as "self."

Which of the following antibody types is the most common in the blood, lymph, and interstitial fluid?

IgG

The constant region of an antibody

determines where the antibody is located and its role in the immune response.

Clonal selection occurs when

antigen-antibody binding causes selected B cells to multiply.

Complement is a collection of

blood proteins that assist antibodies.

Vaccinations protect against future exposure to disease organisms by

forming memory cells.

Allergies occur when

mast cells release excess histamine in response to harmless substances.

An autoimmune disease is characterized by

"anti-self" antibodies that can destroy some "self" cells.

_____ are chemical messenger molecules released by cells that facilitate communication with other cells within the various systems of the body.

cytokines

Many of the body’s _____, or white blood cells, are specialized to attack and destroy invading pathogens and infected body cells. For instance, ______, which include macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells, travel in the bloodstream and ingest bacteria and foreign substances.

leukocytes, phagocytes

_____ play a central role in cell-mediated immunity. They attack virus-infected body cells and cells that have become cancerous.

cytotoxic T cells

The immune system may mistake healthy body cells for invaders, resulting in a(n) _____ in which the immune system attacks a component of its own body.

autoimmune disease

______ are tiny organisms such as bacteria, many fungi, protists, and viruses. Some of them are _____, which are capable of producing disease.

microbes, pathogens

_____ are chemicals that help to combat infection by slowing down the multiplication of bacteria, fungi, or protists.

antibiotics

_____ are complex molecules that can provoke an immune response, including the production of antibodies.

antigens

Which of these glands secretes releasing hormones?

hypothalamus

Which of these hormones are responsible for the "fight or flight" response to danger?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) triggers the release of _____ in response to stress.

glucocorticoids

_____ are the main male hormones.

Androgens

What hormone promotes water retention by the kidneys?

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Which hormone opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?

calcitonin

Which hormone stimulates hormone production by the ovaries and testes?

luteinizing hormone (LH)

Which hormone stimulates milk production?

prolactin

BioFlix Activity: Homeostasis — Hormones and Homeostasis

Drag each label to the appropriate location on the diagram of a homeostasis pathway.

a) Negative feedback b) Endocrine cell c) Hormone d) blood vessel

When blood glucose levels are high

The pancreas releases insulin.

A liver cell responds to insulin by

Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Liver cells.

Body cells that respond to insulin include

Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.

When blood glucose levels are low

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.

The body’s tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

homeostasis.

In _________ diabetes, target cells do not respond normally to insulin.

type 2

In ________ diabetes, no insulin is produced.

type 1

In _________________ diabetes, glucose levels remain higher than normal.

both type 1 & 2

Local hormones are

released by a cell into the surrounding interstitial fluid and affect only other nearby cells.

Endocrine communication depends on

chemicals secreted into the blood for delivery.

Which of these proteins identifies a cell as a target cell for a hormone?

Receptors

Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and diffuse through the plasma membrane into a cell. True or False?

True

You woke up this morning with a headache from staying up cramming last night, so you took an aspirin. This should

help because aspirin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effects of endocrine hormones?

Binding with receptor proteins can cause changes in cell metabolism and/or gene transcription.

Water-soluble hormones bind to molecules in the ________ of the target cell.

plasma membrane

The hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that grow axons and release hormones into the

posterior pituitary.

If basal metabolism drops, which anterior pituitary hormone is released to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine?

TSH

Iodized salt provides the essential nutrient iodine. Iodine is important in preventing

a goiter.

Which of the following best explains why anabolic steroid abuse by male athletes can lead to a decrease in testes size?

High levels of anabolic steroids decrease the production of testosterone, through negative feedback, which decreases the size of the testes.

Which gland responds to light and is involved in daily rhythms in some animals?

Pineal

A(n) _____ is a chemical that is secreted into the interstitial fluid or bloodstream and carried to other cells, where it has a specific effect on target cells.

hormone

In _____, cells release local hormones that diffuse through the interstitial fluid to nearby cells. In _____, hormones enter the bloodstream and are carried throughout the body.

paracrine communication, endocrine communication

The _____ is a region of the brain below the thalamus that regulates the pituitary gland and directs nervous system responses.

hypothalamus

The outer part of an adrenal gland, or _____, secretes steroid hormones. The inner part, or _____, secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.

adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla

The _____ consists of two pairs of small disks of endocrine cells, one pair on each side of the thyroid gland. It releases a hormone that helps regulate calcium ion concentration in the blood.

parathyroid gland

The pituitary gland consists of two distinct lobes: The _____, toward the front, produces prolactin and growth hormone as well as hormones that regulate hormone production in other glands. The _____, toward the back, produces antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.

anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary

A neuron’s nucleus is located in its _____.

cell body

A nerve impulse moves toward a neuron’s cell body along _____.

dendrites

A nerve impulse moves away from a neuron’s cell body along _____.

axons

An impulse relayed along a myelinated axon "jumps" from _____ to _____.

node of Ranvier … node of Ranvier

Axons insulated by a(n) _____ are able to conduct impulses faster that those not so insulated.

myelin sheath

What type of cell makes up the myelin sheath of a motor neuron?

Schwann cells

What part of a neuron relays signals from one neuron to another neuron or to an effector?

synaptic terminal

Which of these causes the release of neurotransmitter molecules?

an action potential reaching the end of the axon

The space between an axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron is called a(n) _____.

synaptic cleft

Neurons store neurotransmitter molecules in vesicles located within _____.

synaptic terminals

A neuron has a resting potential of about _____ millivolts.

-70

An action potential moves along a(n) _____.

axon

At rest, which of these plays a role in establishing the charge differential across a neuron’s plasma membrane?

the sodium-potassium pump moving sodium ions out of the neuron and potassium ions into the neuron

The transmission of a nerve impulse first triggers the _____.

opening of voltage-gated sodium channels and the diffusion of sodium ions into the neuron

A stimulus has opened the voltage-gated sodium channels in an area of a neuron’s plasma membrane. As a result, _____ rushes into the neuron and diffuses to adjacent areas; this in turn results in the _____ in the adjacent areas.

sodium … opening of voltage-gated sodium channels

BioFlix: Neuron at rest

Drag the appropriate caption under each diagram.

1. When a neuron is at its resting potential, the inside of the cell has a negative charge relative to the outside. 2. A stimulus begins to change the distribution of charge across the membrane. 3. During an action potential, sodium channels open up and sodium ions move into the cell. The inside of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the outside. 4. Sodium channels close. Potassium channels open, and potassium ions move out of the cell. 5. The original charge difference is re-established across the membrane and the cell returns to its resting potential.

BioFlix: Conduction of an action potential

1 Action potential begins as sodium channels open here. 2. Sodium ions spread from their point of entry. 3. Action potential is conducted "downstream" as the next sodium channels open. 4. Resting potential is restored here as sodium channels close and potassium channels open.

What type of nervous system is exhibited by the flatworm?

Centralized nervous system

The stronger the stimulus, the more powerful the action potential. True or False?

False

If I step on a shard of glass while playing volleyball barefoot, which path will the reflex to pull my foot up follow?

Sensory nerve – spinal cord – motor nerve – effector

Which of the following is part of the peripheral nervous system?

Autonomic nervous system

The autonomic nervous system consists of two parts: the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. The sympathetic division is responsible for which type of response?

Involuntary responses to extreme danger or stress

Most brain cells are

interneurons.

Which of these parts of the brain controls breathing and heart rate?

Medulla

Memory, sensory processing, motor responses, creativity, and higher intellectual functions are carried out by the

cerebrum.

It is possible that brain damage from a stroke or other injury could leave a person with the ability to comprehend written language but not spoken language (assume the person’s hearing is fine). Which statement best explains this?

Different aspects of language comprehension are controlled by different parts of the brain.

Motor neurons of the _____ form synapses with skeletal muscles and control voluntary movement. Neurons of the _____ control involuntary actions such as respiration and digestion.

somatic nervous system, autonomic nervous system

Branched tendrils called _____ protrude from the neuron cell body and provide a large surface area for receiving signals from other neurons or the environment.

dendrites

Most neural processing and coordination of activity occurs in the brain’s cerebrum. It consists of two nearly symmetrical halves known as ______, each of which is composed of an outer _____, clusters of neurons, and bundles of axons.

cerebral hemispheres, cerebral cortex

The ______ consists of the brain and spinal cord, and the ______ consists of the neurons and axons in the rest of the body.

central nervous system, peripheral nervous system

Located at the top of the spine, the hindbrain includes the cerebellum, pons, and _____, which controls automatic functions.

medulla

Neurons communicate with one another at sites called _____. The _____ is the one sending information, and the ______ is the one receiving information.

synapses, presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron

The _____ is the region of the eye where photoreceptors are most highly concentrated.

fovea

What name is given to the tough layer that forms the "white" of the eye?

sclera

The _____ changes shape to focus light on the retina.

lens

What name is given to the opening that allows light into the interior of the eye?

pupil

Presbyopia occurs when what becomes harder and less elastic?

lens

Your great uncle suffers from glaucoma. Which of the following is damaged?

optic nerve

Progressive lenses may be a good option for someone with presbyopia that doesn’t mind what?

wearing glasses

Your optometrist tells you that your lenses are cloudy. What do you suffer from?

cataracts

Which of the following is the most drastic solution to correct presbyopia?

monovision lasik

Mechanoreceptors include

Meissner’s corpuscles.

Chemoreceptors include

olfactory receptors.

Receptor potentials are ________ the strength of the stimulus.

directly proportional to

Which type of receptor signals that your stomach is full after a big meal?

Mechanoreceptor

Why are we able to perceive the pitch of a sound?

Different parts of the basilar membrane vibrate in response to different frequencies of sound.

Prolonged exposure to very loud noises is most likely to damage

hair cells.

Why do things appear mainly black or white to us in low light?

Rods are more sensitive to light than are cones.

In humans, depth perception is possible because

the two eyes have overlapping visual fields.

Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is often used as a seasoning to enhance the flavors of meat, fish, and vegetables. Which type of taste receptor cell responds to MSG?

Umami

Smell and taste are detected by

chemoreceptors.

There are ________ different olfactory receptor proteins in humans that allow us to sense a variety of odors.

350-400

The sense of taste relies on

both taste buds and olfactory receptors.

_____ in the skin allow you to perceive touch, pressure, and vibration, while _____ allow you to perceive heat and cold.

mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors

The eyeball is surrounded by the _____, a tough connective tissue layer that is visible as the white of the eye.

sclera

_____ in the eye change shape when they absorb light. The light is then converted to an electrical signal and sent to the brain via the _____.

photoreceptors, optic nerve

The _____, or eardrum, stretches across the opening of the middle ear and transmits vibrations to the inner ear. There, the sound wave is converted to an electrical signal and sent to the brain via the _____.

tympanic membrane, auditory nerve

The _____ is the clear, watery fluid between the cornea and the lens of the eye.

aqueous humor

_____ is the ability to see objects simultaneously through both eyes.

binocular vision

The _____ is the group of structures in the inner ear that detect gravity and movement of the head.

vestibular apparatus

_____ respond to chemicals. Internally, they monitor levels of crucial molecules, and externally they allow you to perceive odors and flavors.

chemoreceptors

A muscle cell contains bundles of long

myofibrils.

When a sarcomere contracts

the actin and myosin filaments do not change in length.

Which of the following events is the direct result of an action potential in the membrane of a muscle cell?

The muscle cell’s endoplasmic reticulum (ER) releases calcium ions.

When ATP attaches to a myosin head,

the myosin head detaches from actin.

Calcium ions

bind to the protein that blocks the myosin-binding sites on actin.

BioFlix animation: Structure of a muscle

Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the various muscle structures.

a) Muscle b) Bundle of muscle fibers c) Single muscle fiber (cell) d) Myofibril e) Sarcomere f) Myosin (thick filaments) g) Actin (thin filaments)

BioFlix animation: Overview of muscle contraction

The diagram below shows a muscle cell and its motor neuron. The locations of key steps in the process of muscle contraction are indicated with numbers 1-7.

1) Action potential in the motor neuron triggers an action potential in the muscle cell. 2) Action potential spreads down tubules in the muscle cells. 3) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) releases calcium ions. 4) Calcium ions bind to protein complex on thin (actin) filament, exposing myosin -binding sites. 5) Myosin heads bind to actin and shorten the sarcomere. 6) When action potentials stop, calcium ions are pumped back into the ER. 7) Myosin-binding sites are blocked, and the muscle relaxes.

BioFlix animation: The sliding-filament model of muscle contraction

Drag the labels onto the flowchart to identify the steps of the sliding-filament model of muscle contraction.

1) The myosin head binds the actin. 2) The myosin head pulls the actin filament. This shortens the sarcomere. 3) ATP binds to a myosin head. The myosin head is released from the actin filament. 4) The breakdown of ATP causes the myosin head to extend.

Which of these is a component of a human’s appendicular skeleton?

femur

What type of joint allows you to open and close your mouth?

hinge

What type of joint allows you to shake your head "no"?

pivot

What type of joint is found where the humerus joins the shoulder blade?

ball and socket

The strength of leg muscle contractions when lifting a heavy object is determined by the

frequency of action potentials and number of muscle fibers stimulated.

Fast-twitch muscle fibers, such as those found in the legs of a sprinter, ________ than slow-twitch fibers, such as those in the legs of a marathon runner.

contain fewer mitochondria

________ is (are) found in both smooth and cardiac muscle fibers.

Single nuclei

Smooth muscle

contracts when stretched.

Smooth muscle in the human body includes the

muscles of the uterus.

Which of the following is true of cardiac muscle?

Its cells contain huge numbers of mitochondria.

Which of these animals is correctly matched with its type of skeleton?

Lobster, exoskeleton

Osteoporosis may occur when the activity of ________ exceeds the activity of ________.

osteoclasts; osteoblasts

Cartilage contains

glycoproteins.

Coordinated movement of an animal’s body is produced by alternating contractions of _____ — pairs of muscles with opposing actions.

antagonistic muscles

A(n) _____ is a specialized synapse formed between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber.

neuromuscular junction

Skeletal and cardiac muscles appear striated because the thin and thick _____ are tightly arranged, whereas in smooth muscle they are scattered.

filaments

_____ is found only in the heart and requires a large, uninterrupted supply of ATP.

cardiac muscle

Muscle fibers contain many parallel cylindrical structures called _____.

myofibrils

_____ are mature bone cells that help to regulate bone mass, and _____ are cells that form cartilage at joints all over the skeleton.

osteocytes, chondrocytes

The ______ includes the bones of the head, vertebral column, and rib cage. The _____ includes the pectoral and pelvic girdles, and the arms and legs attached to them.

axial skeleton, appendicular skeleton

Which part of the eye shown in the figure changes shape to focus on objects at different distances?

?A

It is likely that a hospitalized patient with a high lymphocyte count has some type of infection. True or False?

?True

Neurotransmitters are

?electrical signals that move between adjacent cells.

Cartilage is made of what type of cell?

?Chondrocyte

Increased levels of stress and trauma can lead to increased levels of cortisol. True or False?

?True

Which of the following are the first line of defense against microbial attack?

?External barriers

Spicy foods often contain the chemical capsaicin, which activates certain receptors in the mouth, causing your mouth to feel like it is "burning." The receptors activated by capsaicin are also activated by

?very hot temperatures.

Interferon

helps cells resist viral infection.

How many different varieties of cones are found in humans?

3, associated with the colors red, green, and blue.

When light energy hits a photopigment, the molecule

changes shape, setting off a series of chemical reactions.

The vertebral column is part of the axial skeleton. True or False?

True

Sensory receptors are grouped by the

part of the central nervous system to which they connect.

All bacteria and viruses are

microbes.

The site of communication between a neuron and a muscle fiber is called a

neuromuscular junction.

Amino acid sequences for some proteins used by the immune system are similar in vertebrate animals, such as humans, and invertebrate animals, such as insects. This similarity suggests that the genes coding for these proteins were inherited from a common ancestor. True or False?

True

Which molecule contains a binding site for the attachment of myosin heads?

Actin

Chloride ions are released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum when an action potential stimulates it. True or False?

True

Insulin ________ blood glucose, whereas glucagon ________ blood glucose.

increases; decreases

The ion concentrations inside and outside of a neuron are maintained by Na+Cl pumps. True or False?

True

Which portion of the neuron typically receives information?

Dendrite

A second messenger, such as cyclic AMP, carries a hormonal signal to molecules inside a cell. True or False?

True

B cells and T cells cannot design and build antibodies or T-cell receptors to fit specific invading antigens. True or False?

True

"Big eater" cells that ingest and destroy microbes are

macrophages.

What advantage does the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts impart to vertebrates, even after growth has finished?

The cells allow bone to get stronger as physical demands are placed on it.

Endocrine glands secrete their products

into the bloodstream.

Visual information is processed in the

occipital lobes.

What is the effect of a short eyeball?

Farsightedness

Antibodies are nonspecific. True or False?

False

Myelin speeds the conduction of impulses along a nerve by

allowing the action potential to "jump" over sections of the axon.

Which of these hormones does the posterior pituitary release?

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Based on this figure, the ________ inserts into the humerus.

deltoid

The autonomic nervous system controls

contractions of involuntary muscles.

Human fingertips have the same number of touch receptors per square inch as the skin of the back. True or False?

False

Hair cells in the human ear are located on the

basilar membrane.

The inflammatory response includes

localized tissue swelling.

Electrical signals are transmitted to the synaptic terminals along the

dendrite.

Blood glucose levels are controlled by secretions, such as ADH, from the pituitary gland. True or False?

True

The connective tissues that connect muscles to bones are called

tendons.

Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrite side of the synapse. True or False?

False

The T tubules of a muscle fiber are formed from

plasma membrane.

The stronger the stimulus, the larger the action potential. True or False?

False

When an action potential reaches a portion of the membrane, ________ suddenly open.

sodium channels

The muscles of your lower leg are arranged in antagonistic pairs so that you

can both flex and extend your leg.

Which of these is NOT one of the four major categories of tissue?

blood

What type of epithelium would you expect to find covering a surface subject to physical forces?

stratified epithelium

What type of epithelial tissue, found in the intestines, absorbs nutrients?

simple columnar epithelium

Which of these tissues, found in the lungs, permits gas exchange by diffusion?

simple squamous epithelium

What type of epithelial tissue lines kidney tubules?

simple cuboidal cells

How does connective tissue differ from the other three major tissue types?

Connective tissue often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix.

Which of these describes loose connective tissue?

It is a loose weave of fibers that functions as a packing material.

Cartilage is found _____.

at the ends of bones such as the femur

_____ is the connective tissue specialized for transport.

Blood

What type of muscle is responsible for contractions of the digestive tract and arteries?

smooth muscle

Cardiac muscle is the only muscle composed of _____ fibers.

branched

_____ muscle is attached to bones.

Skeletal

A neuron consists of _____.

dendrites, a cell body, and axons

Nervous tissue functions _____.

to sense stimuli

Which of the following is a correct match of cell type with structure?

muscle cell … has proteins that slide back and forth

This feedback loop is an example of ________ feedback.

negative Stimulus (cold)

Most body systems maintain homeostasis through ________ systems.

negative feedback

After eating a large meal of pasta, an individual’s blood sugar levels are elevated. In response to this, the pancreas secretes a hormone called insulin, which acts to lower blood sugar levels. Once the blood sugar levels drop to the normal level, the pancreas stops secreting insulin. This is an example of

a negative feedback loop.

Which of the following controls the temperature in endothermic animals?

Hypothalamus

A(n) ________ is made up of two or more tissue types that work together to carry out body functions.

organ

What happens if homeostasis is not maintained?

Cells lose the ability to carry out normal functions.

Similar cells that perform a particular function are known as

tissues.

Glands that lack ducts and use the bloodstream to transport their products are called ________ glands.

endocrine

_____ glands do not have ducts; they secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid. Examples include the thyroid and pituitary.

endocrine

_____ glands secrete subtances into a body cavity or onto the body surface, usually through a narrow tube or duct. Examples include sweat glands and mammary glands.

exocrine

The outer layer of skin, or the _____, is a stratified epithelial tissue. Directly beneath this layer lies the _____, which is a layer of connective tissue

epidermis, dermis

A reptile is a(n) _____, an organism that derives most of its heat from the external environment. A mammal is a(n) _____, an organism that derives most of its heat from internal metabolic reactions.

ectotherm, endotherm

A(n) _____ is a specialized cell that generates and conducts electrical signals.

neuron

The heart is composed of _____ muscle, which is spontaneously active and not under conscious control.

cardiac

The ability of an organism to maintain stable internal conditions is known as _____.

homeostasis

All of the external and internal surfaces of the body, including the digestive system, are covered by _____ tissue.

epithelial

The posterior inferior vena cava is indicated by the letter _____.

C

Arteries carry blood _____.

away from the heart only

Blood returns to the heart via the _____.

pulmonary veins

From the pulmonary veins, blood flows to the _____.

left atrium

From the anterior vena cava, blood flows to the _____.

right atrium

From the capillaries of the abdominal organs and hind limbs, blood flows to the _____.

posterior vena cava and inferior vena cava

Carbon dioxide enters the blood at the _____.

capillaries of the head, forelimbs, abdominal organs, and hind limbs

The _____ has(have) the thinnest walls.

capillaries

Blood pressure is highest in the _____.

aorta

Most gas exchange with blood vessels occurs across the walls of the structure indicated by the letter _____.

E

From the superior vena cava, blood flows to the _____.

right atrium

What is the advantage of a closed circulatory system over an open one?

A closed system moves blood more efficiently.

The fluid portion of the blood is called ________.

plasma

Platelets are large cells that aid in blood clotting. True or False?

False

All of the following are true of the SA node EXCEPT that it

directly stimulates the ventricles.

The most abundant cell type in blood is the

erythrocyte.

How many molecules of oxygen can bind with one molecule of human hemoglobin?

Four

Each of the following types of white blood cells is found within the circulatory system EXCEPT:

macrophages.

Erythrocytes are produced in the

bone marrow.

White blood cells

protect the body from microbes.

All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT:

transporting oxygen to the lungs.

What two organs are considered to be part of the lymphatic system?

Spleen and thymus

When the heart’s _____ valves open, blood can flow from the atria into the ventricles.

atrioventricular

High blood pressure, or _____, is caused by the constriction of small arteries, which causes resistance to blood flow.

hypertension

Blood travels along the _____ circuit when it passes from the heart to the lungs and then back to the heart.

pulmonary

Invertebrates with an open circulatory system have a body cavity called a(n) _____, which contains a blood-like fluid that bathes body tissues directly.

hemocoel

The heart’s _____ valves open when the ventricles contract, allowing blood to enter the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

semilunar

A(n) _____ is a red blood cell. Its red color is produced by the iron-containing protein ______, which transports most of the blood’s oxygen.

erythrocyte, hemoglobin

_____ is caused by plaque deposits within the artery walls, which cause the arteries to thicken and lose elasticity.

atherosclerosis

An artery branches into a blood vessel of smaller diameter called a(n) _____, which conducts blood into a network of capillaries.

arteriole

A(n) _____, or white blood cell, is larger than a red blood cell but is able to fit through much narrower spaces.

leukocyte

Voice sounds are produced by the _____.

larynx

The primary functions of the _____ are to warm, filter, and humidify air.

nasal cavity

During inhalation,

the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

Alveoli

Which statement is correct?

In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

After blood becomes oxygenated,

it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

Hemoglobin

is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

Most carbon dioxide is carried from the body tissues to the lungs _____.

as bicarbonate ions (HCO3 -)

By picking up hydrogen ions, hemoglobin prevents the blood from becoming too _____.

acidic

In the blood most of the oxygen that will be used in cellular respiration is carried from the lungs to the body tissues _____.

combined with hemoglobin

Insect respiratory systems contain all of these structures EXCEPT:

parabronchi. CONTAINS: tracheae tracheoles spiracles

As shown in this figure, blood flow and water flow are

in opposite directions (countercurrent).

If a respiratory surface dries out, gas exchange will

stop

The movement of a large amount of air from the atmosphere to a respiratory surface is an example of

bulk flow

Birds are able to sustain long flights at high altitudes because they

can extract oxygen during both inhalation and exhalation.

During inhalation, the diaphragm

contracts and moves downward.

The respiratory center is located in the

medulla

The function of the epiglottis is to

prevent food from entering the larynx.

Why do smokers cough?

Smoking damages the cilia that normally remove mucus and debris from the respiratory tract.

Carbon monoxide is poisonous because it

prevents hemoglobin from carrying oxygen.

For smokers who quit smoking, when does healing begin?

Immediately

What happens during countercurrent exchange?

There is a transfer of heat or solute from fluids flowing in opposite directions.

During the _____ stage of breathing, the chest cavity expands and air rushes into the lungs. During _____, the chest cavity decreases in size and air moves out.

inhalation, exhalation

Fish exchange gases with the water by ______ exchange, which involves water and blood flowing over the gills in opposite directions.

countercurrent

Gas exchange occurs in tiny air sacs in the lungs called _____.

alveoli

In the throat, the opening to the larynx is guarded by the _____, a flap of tissue that prevents food from entering the airways

epiglottis

Nearly all of the oxygen carried by blood is bound to ______, an iron-containing protein that gives red blood cells their color.

hemoglobin

The trachea splits into two large branches called ______, which then divide repeatedly into even smaller tubes called ______.

bronchi, bronchioles

Oxogen transport

(BioFlix Activity: Gas Exchange — Oxygen Transport)

1. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into surropumding capillaries 2. Oxygen enters a red blood cell 3. Oxygen binds to a molecule of hemoglobin 4. Oxygen carried through blood vessels to a capillary 5. Oxygen diffuse from the blood to the body’s tissues

Carbon dioxide transport

(BioFlix Activity: Gas Exchange — Carbon Dioxide Transport)

1. Carbon dioxide is released from mitochondria 2. Carbon dioxide diffuses into a capillary 3. Carbon dioxide Is carried to the lungs 4. Carbon dioxide diffuses into a alveolus 5. Air exits through the nose or mouth

When digested, proteins are broken down into _____.

amino acids

When digested, fats are broken down into _____.

both glycerol and fatty acids

Starch is a type of _____.

polysaccharide

Your small intestine can absorb ____ without their being further digested.

fructoses

Which of these enzymes begins the breakdown of starch?

amylase

Starch can be broken down into the disaccharide known as _____.

maltose

Protein digestion begins in the _____.

stomach

What is the main component of gastric juice?

water

_____ is secreted by the _____ and acts to emulsify _____ in the _____.

Bile … liver … fats … small intestine

What acid is responsible for stomach acidity?

hydrochloric acid

Secretin stimulates the _____ to secrete _____.

pancreas … bicarbonate

Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the _____ to secrete _____.

pancreas … pancreatic enzymes

The acidity of the stomach contents triggers the small intestine to secrete a hormone known as _____.

secretin

The presence of fatty acids and amino acids in the stomach contents triggers the small intestine to secrete a hormone known as _____.

cholecystokinin, or CCK

Bile is produced by the _____ and stored by the _____ until it is secreted into the small intestine.

liver … gall bladder

An essential nutrient is one that

cannot be made by the animal.

Humans are able to synthesize all the vitamins they need. True or False?

False

Which nutrients provide energy for animals?

Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

The average human body at rest burns about ________ Calories per hour.

70

Minerals required for bone formation include

calcium and phosphorus.

________ is the molecule used by animals as a source of quick energy.

Glycogen

Which of these groups is the most concentrated energy source?

Lipids

With the widespread public interest in low-fat food, some companies have started to use synthetic fats that cannot be broken down and absorbed by the digestive system. What problem might be associated with a typical American diet that includes large amounts of these synthetic fats?

Vitamin K deficiency

What type of digestion takes place inside the mouth?

Mechanical and chemical digestion

The pH of the digestive tract is

acidic in the stomach and neutral in the intestines.

Which of the following plays a key role in the absorption and distribution of fats?

Chylomicrons and lacteals

If the fluid in the stomach has a highly acidic pH of 1 to 3, how does this fluid become slightly basic almost immediately after it leaves the stomach?

The acids in this fluid are neutralized by the sodium bicarbonate secreted from the pancreas.

Different species of animals have very different nutritional requirements and gastrointestinal tract (GIT) specializations, depending on their primary diets. For example, carnivorous animals have moderate-length intestines, fast gut passage rates, and high protein requirements, in accordance with the high-protein, easily digested prey they consume.

Based on your knowledge of nutrition and digestion and on the example provided in this scenario, what do you conclude about ruminants, which eat low-protein, difficult-to-digest plant leaves?

They have reduced protein requirements, long GITs, and slow gut passage rates to extract as much nutrition from their diet as possible.

In the small intestine, microscopic projections called _____ increase the surface area of the intestinal wall and maximize nutrient absorption.

microvilli

The pancreas produces ______, a digestive enzyme that breaks down lipids into microscopic particles.

lipase

In sponges, intracellular digestion occurs when a membrane-bound cell structure known as a(n) _____ fuses with a food vacuole and releases digestive enzymes to break down stored food.

lysosome

The hormone _____, which is released by glands in the stomach, stimulates acid secretion to help digest proteins.

gastrin

There are three types of consumers: _____ eat only plants or algae; ______ eat both plants and meat; and ______ eat only meat.

herbivore, omnivore, carnivore

_____ is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins into shorter chains of amino acids called peptides.

protease

Saliva contains ______, a digestive enzyme that begins the process of digestion by breaking starches into disaccharides.

amylase

______ is the rhythmic contraction of muscles lining the organs of the digestive tract that pushes food downward from the esophagus to the intestines.

peristalsis

The urethra is identified by the letter _____.

E

Urine formed by a kidney collects in the _____ before being drained from the kidney by the _____ and transported to the _____.

renal pelvis … ureter …urinary bladder

Filtrate is formed as fluid is forced through the walls of the glomerulus and, initially, collects in the structure indicated by the letter

B

The _____ are the major blood vessels transporting blood to the kidneys.

renal arteries

The outer part of the kidney is the _____.

cortex

Which of these is the functional unit of a kidney?

nephron

The movement of substances out of the glomerulus and into Bowman’s capsule is referred to as _____.

filtration

The movement of substances from the blood into the proximal tubule is known as _____.

secretion

Which of these is reabsorbed from filtrate?

all of these ( sodium chloride, glucose, water,amino acids.)

As filtrate moves down the loop of Henle, the surrounding interstitial fluid becomes _____ concentrated than the filtrate, so _____ leaves the filtrate.

more … water

The most abundant solute in urine is _____.

urea (and other nitrogenous wastes)

Which arrow indicates the direction of a gradient of increasing solute concentration in the interstitial fluid surrounding a nephron?

A only

Glucose is removed from filtrate by _____.

active transport

Under the influence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), _____ is produced.

more concentrated urine

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) makes the _____ permeable to water.

collecting duct

Which of the following describes the role of urinary systems in maintaining cellular homeostasis?

Urinary systems regulate the water balance to maintain the concentration of dissolved substances for cells.

All mammals produce ________, which is a nitrogenous waste product excreted in the urine.

urea

When proteins are digested, the liberated amino groups (-NH 2) are released by the cells as

ammonia.

People whose kidneys have failed can eat and drink whatever they like as long as they go to dialysis three times a week as scheduled. True or False?

False

Insect excretory systems consist of

Malpighian tubules.

Alcohol increases urine output by altering the body’s release of antidiuretic hormone. Therefore, alcohol decreases ADH release. True or False?

True

The kidneys regulate blood pressure. True or False?

True

All of the following are functions of the vertebrate urinary system EXCEPT:

regulating temperature.

What is the force that drives filtration of blood from the glomerulus to Bowman’s capsule?

Blood pressure

A person taking antibiotics must take pills several times each day to maintain effective concentrations in the blood. This is because of

tubular secretion.

An animal that has very long loops of Henle probably lives in a ________ environment.

dry desert

Which type of fish is more likely to have a blood plasma osmolarity higher than the osmolarity of the environment?

Freshwater fish

The urinary system plays an important role in ______ , the general process by which wastes are eliminated from the body. This proces also occurs in the respiratory and digestive systems.

excretion

When the pituitary gland secretes _____, cells in the kidney insert water-channel, or ______, proteins into their cell membranes. This results in more water being reabsorbed into the blood and reduces urine output.

antidiuretic hormone, aquaporin

When blood oxygen levels fall, the kidneys release _____, a hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more oxygen-transporting red blood cells.

erythropoietin

When blood pressure falls, the kidneys release ______, an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of ______. This hormone causes arterioles in the body to constrict, increasing blood pressure.

renin, angiotensin

One way that the urinary system helps the body maintain _____, or a relatively constant internal environment, is through ______, the mechanisms by which organisms keep the levels of salt and water in proper balance.

homeostasis, osmoregulation

The _____ is the functional unit of the kidney where blood is filtered and urine is formed. It includes a dense capillary meshwork called the ______ and a long twisted tubule surrounded by ______, a network of blood vessels that reabsorb important substances into the blood.

nephron, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries

The receptors in the respiratory center are most sensitive to a small

rise in blood carbon dioxide levels.

Which sequence properly describes the flow of filtrate through the nephron?

Bowman’s capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct

Gills are respiratory structures found in fish, some amphibians, and in nudibranch mollusks. True or False?

True

Ventricles force blood directly into the

arteries.

The maintenance of internal conditions within narrow ranges is known as homeostasis. True or False?

True

Which is the "good" cholesterol?

HDL

Why do mammals adapted to dry climates tend to have more nephrons with long loops of Henle?

So that a higher concentration of salt can be produced in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla, causing more water to be reabsorbed into the capillaries

The cells lining the small intestine have projections into the lumen of the intestine. These projections, combined with the highly folded layering of cells lining the lumen, function to

increase the surface area.

Which structure collects filtrate from the blood?

Bowman’s capsule

What is the correct sequence of blood vessels from the heart through the body and back to the heart?

Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

Vitamin D is added to milk because it increases

calcium uptake from food.

The ________ system is composed of the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

urinary

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice and bile?

Cholecystokinin

The second step in the formation of urine in a mammal, called reabsorption, occurs in

the proximal tubule.

Which cells are designed to conduct electrical impulses?

Nerve tissue

Imagine that you are examining the teeth in the skull of an unidentified animal. The incisors are flat, the canines are pointed, and molars and premolars are present. This animal was most likely a(n)

omnivore.

The composition of glomerular filtrate is almost identical to that of urine. True or False?

False

This figure shows the lining of the:

small intestine. (it shows villi in pic)

Sponges use their skin as a respiratory organ. True or False?

True

Bile aids in fat digestion by

breaking lipids into smaller components that can then be digested further by pancreatic enzymes.

Osmolarity is the

concentration of particles dissolved in a solution.

Hemoglobin is a respiratory protein. Its function is to

increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

Gas exchange in the lungs occurs due to

diffusion of gases between the blood and the alveolus.

In addition to the nervous system, which vertebrate organ system controls physiological processes in animals?

Endocrine

The skin is an example of a(n)

organ.

Closed air sacs in which gas exchange occurs in mammals are called

alveoli.

In vertebrates, which heart chamber supplies oxygenated blood to the body cells?

Left ventricle

Which sequence of animals is an example of how animal respiratory systems evolved?

Fish, salamander, lizard, bird

All of your blood plasma will be filtered by nephrons about 60 times a day. True or False?

True

The integumentary system plays a role in temperature regulation. True or False?

True

Digestion begins in the

mouth.

Hypertension may lead to

atherosclerosis.

Due to the freezing temperatures of the deep ocean, all deep-sea fish must be endotherms. True or False?

False

Fish have a two-chambered heart, a single atrium, and a single ventricle. True or False?

True

The aorta

is a major artery.

You are given a sample of tissue to identify. The cells contain large amounts of protein arranged in stripes. When an electrical charge is applied to it, the tissue twitches and then relaxes. You classify this sample as ________ tissue.

skeletal muscle

Carbon dioxide can be transported in the blood by all of the following methods, EXCEPT:

as CO bound to hemoglobin.

What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?

Nephron

In a grasshopper, all the body tissues are bathed in blood that is in the

hemocoel.

In stratified epithelium, cell division occurs

in the cells at the base layer only.

The descending limb of the loop of Henle

loses water to the medulla as the filtrate becomes more concentrated.

A man survives for 2 days in the desert with no water to drink. His blood level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) will be

higher than usual.

Which of the following is true of cnidarians, which have a gastrovascular cavity?

Ingestion and elimination occur through a single opening.

As a group, fungi are _____.

decomposers

Fungi release digestive enzymes into their _____.

surroundings

Basidia produce spores by a process known as _____.

meiosis

Fungi produce _____ spores.

haploid

Karyogamy produces a _____.

diploid zygote

Plasmogamy is indicated by the letter _____.

B Plasmogamy is the fusion of hyphae.

Which of these contains two haploid nuclei?

the heterokaryotic stage of the fungal life cycle

Zygosporangia are _____.

heterokaryotic

The process indicated by the letter _____ produces a diploid structure.

C Karyogamy produces a diploid zygote.

Cup fungi are in the phylum _____.

Ascomycota

Which of these structures bears asci?

D Ascocarps bear asci.

In sac fungi, karyogamy and meiosis occur in _____.

asci

A nucleus within an ascus undergoes meiosis, producing four haploid spores, which then undergo mitosis, producing eight haploid ascospores. These haploid ascospores contain a maximum of _____ different genetic types.

four

Which of these is a basidiocarp?

D A mushroom is a basidiocarp.

In club fungi, karyogamy and meiosis occur in _____.

basidia

_____, also known as sac fungi, include morels, yeasts, and the species that produces penicillin.

ascomycetes

Zygomycetes reproduce asexually through the haploid spores formed in _____, or sexually through diploid nuclei formed in _____.

sporangia, zygosporangia

A(n) _____ is a symbiotic association between a fungus and a single-celled alga or cyanobacterium. The fungus protects the photosynthesizer from harsh conditions while consuming the extra nutrients it produces.

lichen

A(n) _____ is a symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a plant. The fungus receives energy-rich sugar molecules produced by the plant while passing minerals and nutrients from the soil to the root.

mycorrhiza

_____ are called club fungi because they produce club-shaped reproductive structures like toadstools.

basidiomycetes

The vegetative body of most fungi is called a(n) _____, which consists of an interwoven mass of threadlike filaments called _____.

mycelium, hyphae

Fungal cell walls are different from plant cell walls because fungal walls contain

chitin, whereas plant walls have cellulose.

When you eat mushrooms on your pizza, you are technically eating the

mycelium.

Lichens can form from the symbiotic relationship between a photosynthetic bacterium and a fungus. True or False?

True

Molds easily contaminate foods because fungi

produce huge numbers of airborne spores.

The fungi in the figure are examples of

reproductive structures. (stinkhorn, puffball, shelf fungus)

The conspicuous structures on the surface of a dead tree that indicate a fungus is growing inside are for

reproduction.

If there were no fungi, which of the following would occur?

Nutrient recycling would stop.

What creates the holes in bread?

Carbon dioxide

Which of the following features are characteristic of fungi?

Cell walls, feeding by absorption, and usually filamentous bodies

It is believed that cheatgrass made it to North America in what way?

in bags of wheat seeds

Which of the following is true?

Cattle prefer native grasses over cheatgrass.

Why is cheatgrass only considered a threat in the Western U.S.?

It is found east of the Mississippi River, but conditions for its success are not as favorable.

Which part of the cheatgrass plant does black finger fungus attack?

seeds

Why might the survival of the greater sage grouse depend on what happens to cheatgrass?

The greater sage grouse may be listed as an endangered species.

You have been contacted to help solve the problem of Baudoinia in Kentucky because it is within your area of expertise. What are you?

mycologist

Where would Baudoinia be most likely to thrive?

temperate rainforest

Your neighbor’s roof is covered with Baudoinia but yours is not. Why?

Her roof is made of wood, yours is made of copper.

Based on current information, which of the following would be most likely to suffer where Baudoinia is found?

mulberry bush

You are the CEO of a whiskey distilling company in Kentucky and are interested in reducing the damage caused by Baudoinia. Where should you visit to learn more about tried-and-true methods to do so?

Wineries in California.

You must decide how to classify a newly discovered organism, but you have only limited test materials to help you make your decision. Chemical A glows if a nuclear envelope is present. Chemical B turns blue in the presence of chloroplasts. Chemical C fizzes when mixed with chitin. After testing the organism, you find out that it glows, doesn’t turn blue, and fizzes. You classify this organism as a

fungus

According to this phylogenetic tree, annelids are most closely related to _____.

arthropods

According to this phylogenetic tree, the clade that includes echinoderms and chordates is most closely related to the clade that includes _____.

molluscs

According to this phylogenetic tree, cnidarians are most closely related to _____.

platyhelminths

Roundworms are classified in the phylum _____.

Nematoda

According to this phylogenetic tree, chordates are most closely related to _____.

echinoderms

Echinoderms are _____.

deuterostomes

Molluscs are _____.

protostomes

Why are annelids, arthropods, and mollusks placed in the same clade?

They are protostomes.

At the phylum level, you are most closely related to a(n) _____.

sea star

The only animals that lack tissues are

sponges.

Your job is to classify a newly discovered animal species. Your initial studies reveal that your specimen has tissues but lacks organs; has no head, body cavity, or segmentation; and has radial symmetry. To what phylum does this animal belong?

Cnidaria

One trend in the evolution of animals is the increase in the number of tissue (germ) layers during embryonic development. Flatworms and more complex animals have ________ layers.

three

Organisms that are radially symmetrical have ________ embryonic germ layers.

two

The only invertebrates capable of flight are arachnids. True or False?

False Arthropod are the only invertebrates capable of flight.

Sea stars (starfish) are bilaterally symmetrical at one time in their life cycle. True or False?

True

The common ancestor of sponges and other animals was probably

multicellular without tissues.

All animals with tissues have

symmetrical bodies.

The major difference between protostomes and deuterostomes is the

way the body cavity forms.

Giant squids are classified as

mollusks.

Which cnidarian is the basis of an undersea habitat?

Coral

Which invertebrate animal group is characterized by having a closed circulatory system?

Annelida

Insects are

arthropods.

The low energy demands of nematodes allow them to survive without a

respiratory system.

Which of the following phyla contains animals that reproduce asexually?

Cnidaria

For corals, which of the following is necessary to maintain genetic diversity?

sexual reproduction

You are a scientist studying corals. You come across a coral reef that is devoid of life and completely white. What likely caused this?

bleaching

What effect is increasing atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide having on the world’s oceans?

acidifying them

If a species’ sperm is stored using cryopreservation, what is done to it?

It is frozen.

If climate change accelerates, what is most likely to happen to the world’s coral reefs?

They will die off.

A jointed exoskeleton is a characteristic of ________.

arthropods

In organisms with an open circulatory system, blood empties into the _____ where it bathes the internal organs directly.

hemocoel

During their development, insects undergo ______, a radical change from a juvenile body form to an adult body form.

metamorphosis

Bilaterally symmetrical animals have three tissue layers that arise during embryonic development: an inner layer of _____, an outer layer of _____, and a layer of _____ that lies in between.

endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm

A(n) _____ is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined with a thin layer of tissue that develops from the mesoderm. It separates the body wall from the inner organs.

coelom

A(n) _____ is a body cavity that is not completely surrounded by mesoderm-derived tissue.

pseudocoelom

_____ is the concentration of sensory organs and nervous tissue in a defined head region of the body.

cephalization

This phylogenetic tree indicates that mammals are most closely related to _____.

reptiles

According to this phylogenetic tree, the animals most closely related to reptiles and mammals are _____.

amphibians

Which one of these chordate groups lacks a post-anal tail and a notochord as adults?

tunicates

The common ancestor of all these chordate groups EXCEPT the _____ probably had paired appendages.

lampreys

Which of these is the only chordate group that has hair?

mammals

On a remote island, a new animal is found. It has a four-chambered heart and lungs and is endothermic. It has internal fertilization, lays shelled eggs, and nurses its young after they hatch. This animal is most likely a(n)

monotreme.

All chordates have

a post-anal tail.

The notochord persists into adulthood in all chordates. True or False?

False

Hagfishes lack jaws. True or False?

True

Which of the following features is absent in lancelets?

Backbone

A tunicate is a(n)

invertebrate chordate.

The great size and mobility of the vertebrates are likely the result of

lightweight endoskeletons.

What is the function of the vertebral column?

Protect the nerve cord

Birds are feathered reptiles. True or False?

True

What is the advantage of paired appendages?

They improve mobility.

All female mammals produce milk to feed their young. True or False?

True

Chondrichthyes includes

sharks.

Which were the first tetrapods to move to land?

Amphibians

One adaptation that enables an animal to live successfully on dry land is

development in a shelled egg.

The high body temperature of birds and mammals is due to

their high metabolic rates.

An animal that has a four-chambered heart, is endothermic, and does not give birth to live offspring can be classified as a(n)

bird.

Which characteristic do birds share with mammals?

A four-chambered heart

Because it uses it for protection, the African crested rat is dependent on which of the following?

Acokanthera tree

Which of the following is highly modified on an African crested rat to hold poison?

hair

Which of the following is true regarding poisonous mammals?

Most poisonous mammals procure toxins from other sources.

You are a field researcher and you observe a group of Capuchin monkeys rolling on a nest of carpenter ants. Why are they doing this?

To keep insects away.

You wish to develop a soap that will quickly and thoroughly remove the scent of skunk spray. Which of the following chemical compounds are you trying to clean?

thiol

_____ are animals with a skull that encloses the brain.

craniates

In chordates, the _____ is a stiff but flexible rod that extends along the back of the body between the digestive tract and nerve cord.

notochord

In _____, young are born at an extremely immature stage and undergo further development in a pouch.

marsupials

Reptile eggs have an internal membrane called the _____ that encloses the developing embryo in a watery environment.

amnion

_____ are animals in which the embryonic notochord is replaced during development by a(n) _____ composed of bone or cartilage.

vertebrates, vertebral column

A(n) _____ produces milk that female mammals use to feed their young.

mammary gland

_____ are organisms descended from the first four-limbed vertebrate.

tetrapods

In sharks and rays, the skeleton is made of ________.

cartilage

Anemones have no

mesoderm.

A sea urchin is a member of the phylum

Echinodermata.

The name "sac fungi" is appropriate for the ascomycetes because

they produce spores in saclike structures.

This animal is classified as a

ray-finned fish. (sea horse)

Which of the following is a by-product of yeast fermentation?

Carbon dioxide

Which of these groups is characterized by having a true coelom?

Arthropods

Endothermic animals have four-chambered hearts. True or False?

True

Which group of fungi appears to lack asexual reproduction?

Glomeromycetes

The importance of fungi to ecosystems is mostly as a(n)

decomposer.

A clam is a(n)

mollusk.

A terrestrial vertebrate that has scales and a three-chambered heart is a(n)

reptile.

Which fungal group produces swimming, flagellated spores?

Chytrids

Which of these groups is characterized by a lack of symmetry (neither radial nor bilateral)?

Sponges

The organism shown here is a(n)

cephalopod. (round and looks like a snail but not)

Based on the illustration, basidiomycetes are most closely related to

ascomycetes.

An animal whose body cavity is completely lined with mesoderm has a pseudocoelom. True or False?

False

The worldwide die-off of frogs has been traced to infection by

chytrids.

A zygosporangium is produced by

the union of two haploid hyphae.

Within the mollusks, only the cephalopods have a

closed circulatory system.

Single-celled fungi are known as

yeasts.

________ form beneficial symbiotic relationships with plant roots.

Glomeromycetes

You find a new organism. It gains nutrients by secreting enzymes outside of itself and absorbing the digested product. It is eukaryotic and has a cell wall containing chitin. It reproduces with flagellated, swimming spores. You classify the new organism as a(n)

rumen fungus.

Sponges are radially symmetrical. True or False?

False

Animal cells lack a cell wall. True or False?

True

Why have reptiles successfully adapted to land?

They produce eggs that resist dehydration.

Ascomycetes produce which of the following?

Smuts and rusts

Fungal cell walls are composed of lignin. True or False?

False

Mammals have the most complex nervous system of all vertebrates. True or False?

True

Spiders belong to the

arthropods.

Which fungal phylum usually carries on sexual reproduction?

Basidiomycetes

Which of these groups is characterized by having no body cavity?

Cnidarians

The skeletons of ray-finned fishes are made of cartilage. True or False?

False

A snail is a(n)

mollusk.

Which of the following animal phyla is distinguished by a lack of tissues?

Sponges

Your job is to classify a newly discovered animal species. Your initial studies reveal that your specimen lacks tissues and organs and has no head, body symmetry, body cavity, or segmentation. To what phylum does this animal belong?

Porifera

During embryonic development, the tail in mammals extends past the anus. True or False?

True

Mycorrhizae associations are

common; at least 80% of the species of plants form these associations.

Mycorrhizae surround and infiltrate the ________ of vascular plants.

roots

Flatworms have a coelom that is only partially surrounded with mesoderm. True or False?

False

Hydrae, anemones, and jellyfish are in the phylum

Cnidaria.

The idea put forward by Lamarck, which stated that organisms could pass on to their offspring physical changes that the parents developed during their own lifetimes, is known as __________.

inheritance of acquired characteristics

Which of the following is one of the main points of Darwin’s theory of evolution?

Contemporary species share a common descent.

Which of the following is a basic requirement for natural selection to be an effective evolutionary force?

A population exhibits some genetic variability.

What does the idea of "uniformitarianism" suggest about the geological record and the age of Earth?

Natural processes occurring over long stretches of time accounted for the thick layers of rock where fossils are found.

Your arm is homologous with __________.

both a seal flipper and a bird wing

Which of the following are fossils?

the impression of a clam shell made in mud, preserved in mudstone, and an insect leg sealed in plant resin

In Africa, there is a species of bird called the yellow-throated longclaw. It looks almost exactly like the meadowlark found in North America, but they are not closely related. This is an example of __________.

convergent evolution

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about mutation?

Mutations that are favored by selection are more likely to occur.

For cockroaches to have rapidly evolved resistance to an insecticide, __________.

some cockroaches must have had a mutation, causing them to be resistant to the ingredients

Behavioral geneticists have found that the ability of house mice to squeak is determined by a single gene. If squeaky mice are more likely to be dropped by startled predators, __________.

the mouse population will consist of more and more squeakers over time

What was the untested weakness in Darwin’s manifest On the Origin of Species?

the passage of traits from generation to generation, and that variations in these traits occurred randomly

Charles Darwin was NOT influenced by which of the following people in formulating his ideas about natural selection?

Gregor Mendel

What contribution(s) did Darwin make to science?

Darwin recognized and described the process of natural selection and the pattern of evolution.

What is a modern definition of evolution?

Evolution is a change in the characteristics of a population over time.

You are a biologist studying a natural population of mice, and you observe that, in one area, the proportion of darker-colored mice is greater than the proportion of lighter-colored mice. In another area, the opposite is true. You find that only the area with more dark mice has predators. Therefore, you hypothesize that darker mice are favored in areas with predators, perhaps because they are more difficult to see. If your hypothesis is true, what would you expect to happen in the few generations after predators are introduced to an area with a population of mice that previously did not have predators?

The proportion of darker-colored mice will increase.

Which list below contains the four postulates of natural selection?

differential survival or reproduction, selection, variation among individuals in a population, heritable variation

Bat wings and insect wings are __________ structures.

analogous

All organisms share the same genetic code. This commonality is evidence that __________.

all organisms are descended from a common ancestor

Which of the following lines of evidence support(s) the idea that evolution occurs?

the fossil record, genetic and biochemical analysis, comparative anatomy and embryology, and natural selection

Structures that have similar functions but very different anatomy, such as the wings of insects and birds, are called __________. The similarities are due to similar environmental pressures rather than to common ancestry.

analogous structures

Structures that may differ in function but that have similar anatomy, presumably because of descent from common ancestors, are called __________.

homologous structures

Structures that serve no apparent purpose, but are homologous to functional structures in related organisms, are called __________.

vestigial structures

All vertebrate embryos resemble each other during the early stages of development. For example, fish, turtles, chickens, mice, and humans develop tails and gill slits during early stages of development. This type of evolutionary information is known as __________.

comparative anatomy and embryology

Which of the following would be considered to be an example of analogous structures?

superficially similar structures in unrelated species

Antibiotic prescriptions normally specify that one take the entire course of treatment, such as a fixed number of pills, rather than simply taking the medicine until one feels better. In terms of evolution, why is this beneficial?

Bacteria carrying slight resistance will be killed by the full course but will persist with a lesser dose. Natural selection will favor the slightly resistant forms if you do not complete the entire course of the antibiotic.

Biologists have shown that some species of fish have genetic variation in their tendency to bite an angler’s bait and hook. In professional bass fishing tournaments, all fish caught are returned to the water; therefore, __________.

no change in catching success should occur

Which of the following would describe artificial selection?

breeding organisms for the purpose of generating certain features or traits (e.g., domestic cattle )

Which of the following is NOT a way that the human population influences evolution?

Coloration changes in a guppy population in an isolated stream happen in the absence of predators.

In the United States today, about half of the corn crop is genetically engineered with a protein that is toxic to corn borers, an insect pest of corn. Which of the following conditions is necessary for the corn borer to evolve resistance to the toxic protein?

The corn borer must have heritable variation in the resistance to the toxic protein. The resistant corn borers must survive better or reproduce more than nonresistant corn borers.

Biologists have shown that some species of fish have genetic variation in their tendency to bite an angler’s bait and hook. With repeated fishing and harvesting of caught fish, __________.

catching fish should become more difficult

Darwin’s thinking while on the Beagle was greatly influenced by his reading of a book written by _____.

Lyell

Which of these is a consequence of uniformitarianism?

Earth is very old.

According to this climatograph, London experiences more precipitation during _____ than during any other month.

October

The Argentinean pampas are a type of _____.

grassland

At the fossil site at Punta Alta, Darwin found evidence _____.

of extinction

Patagonia is a _____.

desert

His experiences with Fuegians and slavery convinced Darwin that differences among all peoples are primarily _____ differences.

cultural

Species in hot climates tend to _____ compared to species in cold climates.

have larger surface-to-volume ratios

In the Andes, at elevations of 12,000 feet, Darwin collected fossilized marine shells. The existence of marine shells at this altitude provided evidence that _____.

the deposit had been gradually uplifted to its present location

The Galápagos Islands are located _____.

Off the coast of Ecuador

Why were the Galápagos Islands so important to Darwin’s formulation of natural selection?

Why were the Galápagos Islands so important to Darwin’s formulation of natural selection?

Which statement illustrates Lamarck’s theory on the mechanism of evolution?

A man who routinely shaves the hair off his head will have sons who become bald.

Modern geologists estimate that the age of Earth is about

4.5 billion years.

Genetic variations in natural populations develop due to

random mutations of the DNA.

An antibiotic is given repeatedly to treat a recurrent ear infection. It worked initially but now is no longer effective. This indicates that the Streptococcus bacterium

experienced natural selection that has allowed the resistant Streptococcus to survive and multiply.

Which of the following statements about mutations is TRUE?

Mutations occur at random and are by chance.

Which of the four postulates of Darwin’s theory of evolution was not well established when On the Origin of Species was first published but is overwhelmingly supported today?

Some differences among individuals in a population are due to genetics and are heritable.

The theory of natural selection states that

the most well-adapted individuals in their environments survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next generation.

Natural selection is best described as

working on the existing variation of traits to favor those better suited to the organism’s environment.

Two species may have _____ structures, features whose internal similarities are due to their inheritance from a common ancestor.

homologous

Breeders use ______ to enhance desired traits in domesticated plants and animals. It is done by choosing only individuals with those traits to breed.

artificial selection

A(n) ______ serves no apparent purpose because its original function has been lost during the course of evolution.

vestigial structure

The wings of birds and insects are an example of _____ structures, which result from _______ rather than shared common ancestry.

analogous; convergent evolution

_______ is the process through which traits that give individual organisms a reproductive advantage grow more common in a population over many generations.

natural selection

Coprolites (animal dung), bones, and impressions of body parts in rocks are called ________.

fossils

Fish in a local lake have a mixture of brown and green scales and are found throughout the lake. Over a 5-year period, the lake develops more plant growth and an exotic predatory frog is introduced. What change would you expect to see in the original fish population?

The fish with green scales will become more common.

The figure indicates that

trilobites evolved before seed ferns.

A storm blows the four species of finches shown in the figure to a new island that has only small-seeded grasses. Which species is more likely to survive?

Species b

The wing of a bat is homologous to the _____ of a whale.

flipper

Which of the following correctly describes the evolution of roaches who were resistant to Combat®?

The roach bait caused the population to evolve by selecting against roaches that preferred the bait.

Which of the following can evolve?

Populations

The interaction of genes and environment produces a specific

phenotype.

The gene pool for a particular gene is made up of

all the genes that occur in the population.

Within a large population, if no mutations occur, no migration occurs, all matings are random, and
each individual has an equal chance of reproducing, which of the following will probably happen?

No evolution will occur.

Zoos often loan animals to other zoos for breeding purposes. From an evolutionary standpoint,
what is the benefit?

It increases the genetic diversity of the zoo’s population.

Which of the following mutations would increase evolutionary fitness?

One that increases the frequency of successful reproduction

A dam is built on a river upstream of a population of trout. The trout experience of dramatic reduction in their habitat. What evolutionary event has likely occurred to this population?

reduction in diversity due to a bottleneck

A forest fire kills off 90% of a rabbit population. What has occurred in this population?

bottleneck

Imagine that two men and two women settle on an uninhabited island, no new settlers arrive, and nobody leaves the island for many generations. All four settlers have brown eyes, but one of the men carries a recessive gene for blue eyes. Eye color has no effect on fitness. If the percentage of blue-eyed individuals on the island increases from 0% to 25%, what is the probable cause?

Genetic drift

Imagine you are studying leaf size in a large population of plants over several years. In one year of
your study there is a below-average amount of rainfall, and the following year the average leaf size
in the population is smaller than before. However, the amount of variation in leaf size is the same
and the population size doesn’t change. Other scientists have done experiments showing that small
leaves are better adapted to dry conditions than large leaves. What has most likely occurred?

Directional selection

The evolution of populations due to chance is

genetic drift

If color is an inherited trait in beetles, and birds are more likely to eat brown beetles than green beetles,

the frequency of the green allele will increase.

In a population with brown and green alleles for color, genetic drift

has more effect on the evolution of a small population.

Color is an inherited trait in beetles. If brown beetles move into a population from a nearby island, which of the following statements is correct?

Gene flow causes the frequency of the brown allele to increase.

Remember that color is an inherited trait in beetles. Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

Green beetles leave more offspring than brown beetles because they are better at finding food.

New individuals move into a population.

Gene Flow

Camouflage enables this insect to evade predators.

Natural selection

A prominent tail helps the peacock attract a mate.

Natural selection

By chance, some wildflowers in this population reproduce, while others do not.

Genetic drift

The bird’s beak is well-suited for cracking seeds.

Natural selection

A drought causes a habitat to turn dry and brown

Environmental Change

Green beetles are more visible to birds than brown beetles, so birds eat more green beetles.

Selective Pressure

Brown beetles survive to reproduce more than green beetles do. The brown allele increases in frequency.

Change in Population

In a species of snail, dark-shelled individuals are better hidden from bird predators in the shady forest, while light-shelled individuals are better hidden in well-lit brushy edge areas. If there were no areas of intermediate brightness in this habitat, which type of selection would act on shell color in these snails?

Disruptive selection

Small lizards have difficulty defending their territory, but large lizards are more likely to be preyed upon by owls. Which type of selection would act on body size in these lizards under these conditions?

Stabilizing selection

Which of the following events could NOT be caused by a population bottleneck?

Increased population size

Which of the following statements about the amoeba population described at the end of the tutorial is true?

It is more vulnerable to extinction due to lack of genetic variation.

True or False. In the example described in the tutorial, the red amoebas survived the catastrophic event, and all future generations of amoebas were red because the red amoebas had a higher reproductive rate than the blue ones.

False

When a species invades a new habitat and evolves rapidly into several new species to better exploit new resources, what has occurred?

Adaptive radiation

All members of the golden hamster species known today are descendants of a single litter collected in Syria in 1939. Its diploid chromosome number is 44. Two other species of hamster, each with a diploid number of 22, overlap in Syria. The golden hamster is thought to be a new species from the mating of a male and female of the two other hamster species. What mechanism might explain this recent event of speciation?

Polyploidy

Strong courtship displays like the one in the figure below can lead to

behavioral isolation (picture of birds)

A group of an interbreeding natural population that is reproductively isolated from other such groups is called a

species

Which statement BEST describes the reproductive isolation between populations of Rhagoletis flies found on apple and hawthorn trees?

Apple-liking males are more likely to encounter apple-liking females than hawthorn-liking females.

Which of the following statements about reinforcement is true?

Reinforcements is a type of natural selection.

A subset of a population of birds leaves its habitat and colonizes a nearby island. After many generations, the island sinks and the population of birds living on the island returns to its original habitat. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the two bird populations?

The birds were separated by dispersal.

Which species is least likely to become extinct?

A mammal species that can live equally well on dry land and in fresh water

One method of protecting the genetic isolation of a population is the inability of sperm to fertilize eggs of a different species. This is called

gametic incompatibility.

________ speciation is the process by which two populations of a single species that share the same geographical area become two seperate species.

sympatric

______ is the death of all members of a species, and is typically caused by environmental change.

extinction

Different species are prevented from interbreeding in one or two ways: _______ isolating mechanisms prevent mating between species, while ______ isolating mechanisms prevent the formation of vigorous fertile offspring between species.

premating, postmating

A condition in which one or more entire sets of chromosomes have been added to the genome of a diploid organism is known as _______.

polyploidy

______ speciation is the process by which two populations of a single species becomes two species following a geographic separation.

allopatric

______ is the general term for the process by which new species form.

speciation

The biological species concept cannot be applied to

extinct organisms.

Which statement BEST describes how overspecialization can affect a species?

Highly specialized adaptations in a species increase the likelihood of extinction if the environment changes.

Horses and donkeys can mate successfully to produce mules, which are always sterile. Which genetic isolating mechanism prevents horses and donkeys from being a single species?

Hybrid infertility

The great Dane and Chihuahua are both domestic dogs (the same species), but mating between them is limited because of

mechanical incompatibility

Which of the following is the most prevalent immediate cause of extinction?

environmental change

Fruit fly species all look similar to one another. If you have a male and a female fruit fly, how can you prove that they are the same species, according to the biological species concept?

If they mate successfully and their offspring are fertile, they are the same species.

Based on the chemical make-up of the first self-replicating molecule, it most closely resembles the structure of certain types of:

viruses

Self-replicating molecules are thought to have appeared about:

4 billion years ago

The most likely location of where ribozymes developed is:

in hot-springs

Which of these events occurred during the Paleozoic?

colonization of land by plants

Which of these events occurred earliest in the history of Earth?

formation of oxygen

Which of these events occurred most recently in the history of Earth?

first humans

After a long period of coevolution, the photosynthetic bacterium consumed by the predatory cell became the cellular organelle known as the:

chloroplast.

After a long period of coevolution, the aerobic bacterium consumed by the predatory cell became the cellular organelle known as the:

mitochondrion.

The bacteria initially persist in the predatory cell because:

the predatory cell is unable to digest the bacteria.

Humans are _____.

Homo sapiens

The theory that life began in the distant past from nonliving molecules that became able to reproduce themselves is called:

prebiotic evolution

What compounds were used in Miller and Urey’s experiment to stimulate the atmosphere of early Earth?

water, ammonia, hydrogen, and methane

The first animals to move onto land were _____.

arthropods

The fossil evidence indicates that amphibians evolved from _______.

fish

The oldest fossil organisms presently known have been dated at approximately how many years old?

3.5 billion

Based on current knowledge about the conditions of the early Earth, the first organisms were most likely

Anaerobic prokaryotes.

The oxygen that arose in early Earth’s atmosphere was likely produced by organisms that were very similar to modern

cyanobacteria.

To be classified as a eukaryote, an organism must have

internal membranes.

Multicellularity enables organisms to

be big.

About 530 million years ago, what adaption evolved to make fish the dominant predators of the sea?

Internal Skeleton

The first multicellular terrestrial organisms were

plants.

Early land plants required adaptions that

aided reproduction helped support the plant decreased water loss ANSWER: all of the above

By examining fossil evidence, paleontologists believe that mammals evolved from ancestors of modern

reptiles.

The generally slow and steady succession of species on Earth has been interrupted by

episodes of mass extinction.

Which characteristics sets hominins apart from other primates?

Bipedal locomotion

It has been proposed that large brains evolved in Homo species because

natural selection favored large-brained individuals because they were better in social interactions.

Which of the following processes involves behaviors that are acquired by learning and can be modified and passed on from one generation to the next?

Cultural evolution

Louis Pasteur’s experiment illustrated that

microbes will not grow in a nutrient broth that has been sterilized unless air is allowed to enter the vessel through an opening.

Miller and Urey’s experiments to stimulate prebiotic evolution produced

a rich mixture of organic molecules.

Arthropods were able to move onto land because their ______ prevented dehydration and provided support.

exoskeleton

DNA analysis reveals that two species of birds appear to have evolved from a common ancestor.
These two species belong to the same

clade

Why do some biologists not consider reptiles to be a monophyletic group?

Birds are the direct descendants of some reptiles.

Based on the evolutionary tree shown here, which two organisms are most closely related?

chimps and bonobos

Which of the following is the smallest or least inclusive group?

Genus

According to chemical and molecular evidence, members of the kingdom Fungi are most closely related to which of these groups in the tree of life?

Animals

____ is the branch of biology concerned with reconstructing phylogenies.

systematics

Organisms in domain Bacteria and domain ____ are single-celled microorganisms with no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

Archaea

The cells of all organisms in domain ____ have a membrane-bound nucleus.

Eukarya

Each designated group on a phylogenetic tree should be ____, containing all descendants of a single common ancestor. Groups that contain some, but not all, descendants are ____.

monophyletic, paraphyletic

On a phylogenetic tree, relationships among taxa are revealed by the occurence of ____, traits that are similar in tow or more taxa because they derive from common ancestor.

synaptomorphies

Today, the process of classification focuses almost exclusively on reconstructing evolutionary history, or ____.

phylogeny

Comparing the chromosomes of chimpanzees and humans has revealed that the two species

are closely related.

Prokaryotic cells are found in the domain(s) ____.

Bacteria and Archaea

In the five-kingdom system, prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom______

Monera

In the five-kingdom system, which kingdom consists primarily of unicellular eukaryotes

Protista

A human is classified in the domain _____ and kingdom _____.

Eukarya … Animalia

There is(are) ____ eukaryotic domain(s).

one

A rose bush is classified in domain _____ and kingdom _____.

Eukarya … Plantae

In the two-kingdom system, why were fungi classified in the kingdom Plantae?

They are sedentary.

Research indicates that HIV developed from a bird virus. True or False?

False

The most powerful way to infer evolutionary relationships relies on which type of evidence?

Comparison of DNA base sequences

The science of reconstructing the evolutionary history of life is called

systematics.

Which biologist first proposed that all organisms share a common ancestry?

Darwin

Current research indicates that the temperate forest has the greatest biodiversity. True or False?

False

Evolutionary relationships among organisms are most likely to be revised at the ________ level.

species

Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the wolf?

Canis lupus (in italics)

If you take the entire history of the earth and call it an hour, what were the only organisms around for the first 50 minutes?

microbes

If you take the entire history of the earth and call it an hour, how long have humans been around?

The last hundredth of a second of that hour.

How long ago did mammals appear on earth?

200 million years ago

What is the puzzle with whales and dolphins?

How dolphins evolved from whales.

What was odd about the fossil skull found?

There was a walnut-shape bump, which was part of the animal’s inner ear, it had a distant shape, a shape found today only in whales. This bump in the ear was found from a skull of an animal that resembles a wolf.

Besides bones, what other type of evidence shows ancestry in whales and dolphins?

The way whales and dolphins move through the water/swim.

According to the video, what is interesting about the way a whale swims?

Whales undulates their spine up and down; the same as seen in land mammals when they run.

What does evolution "tinker" with?

genes

According to the video, what was the interesting conclusion that came from the gene experiments with fruit flies?

Each body segment of the fly was being directed to grow by a single gene. A small set of genes appeared to be laying out the entire bidy, like a blueprint.

According to the video, what is "unique" about humans in the story of evolution?

Humans are the one’s telling the story of evolution.

Genetic drift results in a change in gene frequencies because

the population size is so small that chance occurrences can alter gene frequencies.

The elaborate courtship displays common among animals are the result of

sexual selection.

Which of the following can cause evolutionary change in a small population?

Genetic drift

The hobbit-sized hominin whose fossilized remains were recently discovered on a remote oceanic island belonged to the species

Homo floresiensis

Mitochondria contain their own DNA, separate from that of the rest of the cell. True or False?

True

Humans still have body hair even though it is greatly reduced and serves little function. The hair is a(n):

vestigial structure.

Which of the following phenomena favors individuals with average phenotypes over those with extreme phenotypes?

Stabilizing selection

The biological concept of species requires that

organisms reproduce sexually.

Two species of garter snakes live in the same geographic area. One lives mainly in water and the other mainly on land, so they rarely encounter each other and do not interbreed. What type of isolation is this?

Ecological

Based on the phylogeny figure, HIV-1 (strain 1) and HIV-2 (strain 2)

share the least DNA in common.

When natural selection tends to split a population into two phenotypic groups, it is called

balanced polymorphism.

Some animal species found in caves have tiny, nonfunctional eyes. These are best described as

vestigial structures

The many different breeds of domestic dog were produced by

artificial selection.

Gene flow

can spread certain alleles throughout a species.

Suppose that the only population of a certain reptile species lives on an African mountain. If you
could prevent all movement of individuals out of this large but isolated population, which of the
following describes the most likely future of this reptile population?

Evolution will continue because of mutations, assortative mating, and genetic drift.

Organisms that have the greatest reproductive success are considered the most evolutionarily fit. True or False?

True

Probably the greatest advantage for the original multicellular organisms was their ability to

avoid predators.

Which of the following are vestigial structures?

Pelvic bones of whales

Overspecialized adaptations

are the result of natural selection.

In a single family, the parents have brown eyes but all five of their children have green eyes. This is an example of evolution. True or False?

False

Current theories hold that hominin species migrated out of Africa

multiple times throughout history.

In a certain species of salmon, some adult males are extremely large whereas other adult males are very small, compared to females. There are no intermediate-sized adult males in the population. This is probably the

disruptive selection

Premating isolation mechanisms occur when two species have different and incompatible mating behaviors. True or False?

True

Darwin’s theory of evolution was based on his observations during his voyage to Asia. True or False?

False

Miller and Urey’s experiments attempting to re-create the prebiotic environment produced a rich mixture of complex organic chemicals from simple chemicals. True or False?

True

Based on the tree of life, which two groups have the closest ancestor in common?

Animals and fungi

The earliest fossil organisms resemble modern

prokaryotes.

Crossing a zebra with a horse produces sterile offspring. This is an example of

hybrid infertility.

New individuals moving into an area and joining the breeding population are an example of gene flow. True or False?

True

In any population of organisms, individual variations exist. True or False?

True

Monophyletic groups contain all the species that evolved from a common ancestor. True or False?

True

The science of reconstructing an organism’s evolutionary history is called systematics. True or False?

False

Evidence that supports the theory of evolution is found in the studies of

embryos, biochemistry, fossils, and artificial selection

The amino acid sequences of human and bonobo hemoglobin are almost identical, yet they differ
considerably from the sequence of the hemoglobin of wolves. This fact indicates that:

bonobos are more closely related to humans than to wolves.

Polyploidy is an important mechanism of speciation in plants. True or False?

True

Mutations are important because they

provide variation that can result in evolutionary change.

Temporal isolation is an example of

a premating isolating mechanism.

Most commercial pesticides are effective for only 2 or 3 years because

those pests born with mutations that provide immunity will survive and reproduce.

An emu is a flightless bird that still has wings. These wings are an example of

vestigial structures.

Which trait is the best example of an adaptation?

A mutation resulting in a heat-resistant enzyme in a bacterium living in a hot spring

If genetic studies reveal that a population has genetic sequences in common with two closely
related species but has no unique sequences of its own, then

it should be considered a hybrid of the two species.

A population carries two alleles for a trait in which T is dominant and t is recessive. In the
Hardy-Weinberg equation, 2pq represents the

proportion of heterozygous individuals.

Having greater evolutionary fitness means

having more offspring.

Two fossils may be assigned to different species if

they are anatomically different.

Always add water to acids. True or False?

False

If glass breaks during a lab activity, it should be placed directly in the trash can. True or False?

False

How does a solution of pH 7 compare to a solution of pH 10?

pH 7 has more OH- ions pH 7 is more basic NOT: pH 7 has a higher pH pH 7 has more H+ ions

A neutralization reaction occurs when an acid and a base are added together to create a neutral solution (pH 7). True or False?

True

In your pH buffering experiment, at which point was the solution in beaker "B" neutralized?

when five mL of acetic acid were added

Click "yes" if you understand and agree with the following statement:

I am a responsible adult who has read, understands, and agrees to fully abide by all safety precautions prescribed in this lab manual for laboratory work. Accordingly, I recognize the inherent hazards associated with science experimentation; I will always experiment in a safe and prudent manner. I understand that eScience Labs assumes full liability for the safety and techniques employed within this manual, provided that I adhere to the safety guidelines outlined in the mandatory eScience Labs Safety Video, Preface,and Appendix. eScience Labs does not condone use of the lab materials provided in its lab kits for any use outside of the curriculum expressly outlined within the lab manual.

yes

What should you do if you spill a chemical on your hand?

Rinse the affected skin with water and consult the MSDS in case of additional required response.

What should you always wear to protect your eyes when you are in the laboratory?

lab goggles or lab glasses.

The material safety data sheet (MSDS) for a particular chemical includes all of the following except:

Cost

Which of the following would be used to actually measure 49 mL of a liquid?

100 mL graduated cylinder

In the MEGA program, FASTA is found is the Alignment Explorer. True or False?

False

MEGA stands for:

Molecular Evolutionary Genetics Analysis

In the MEGA phylogenetic tree shown below, which of the following species is the most recently evolved for this gene?

Norway rat

When performing a MEGA analysis, we look up the first CDS number because

that is the location of the first base of the start codon

Clustal W is a type of mutation in the DNA sequence coding for a particular amino acid. True or False?

False

Which structure helps bacteria to attach within the tissues that they will infect?

Capsule

True or false. Bacteria reproduce by an asexual process in which one parent cell gives rise to identical daughter cells.

True

There are four bacteria in an egg salad that is left out at room temperature. After two hours, how many bacteria will be in the egg salad?

256 ( The bacteria would double 6 times in 2 hours, every 20 minutes it will multiply by 2.)

The genetic material of HIV consists of _____.

single-stranded RNA

Which of these binds to receptor molecules on the host cell membrane?

A (Glycoproteins)

What is the function of reverse transcriptase?

It catalyzes the formation of DNA from an RNA template.

What is the source of a viral envelope?

host cell membrane

Which of these is reverse transcriptase?

C

Which of these is the viral genome?

E

What enzyme is responsible for the process seen here?

reverse transcriptase

Double-stranded viral DNA is incorporated into a host cell as a _____.

provirus

The nodules in the figure are

converting nitrogen gas to a form usable by plants.

Peptidoglycan is found in the cell walls of

bacteria.

The organism in the figure parasitizes

bacteria.

Unlike aerobic prokaryotes, anaerobic prokaryotes can obtain energy when ________ is not available.

oxygen

You discover a new "particle." It has only RNA as a nucleic acid and lacks both a membrane and cytoplasm. This "particle" is a(n)

virus.

Cyanobacteria obtain energy through ________.

photosynthesis

Bacterial endospores are used for

keeping the bacteria alive under harsh conditions.

Dental plaque is an example of

a biofilm.

A bacterium capable of causing disease in a host is a(n) ________.

pathogen

Through which process are bacteria able to exchange genetic material?

Conjugation

In bacteria, the small, circular pieces of DNA that are located outside the chromosome are called

plasmids.

Mutations that improve the survival and reproduction of organisms, and thus contribute to the evolution of species, arise rapidly in prokaryotes due to their

rapid rate of cell division.

The use of bacteria to break down pollutants is referred to as

bioremediation.

To limit your risk from foodborne bacteria, you should

cook foods thoroughly.

In which of these environments would you normally find prokaryotes?

An animal’s intestinal tract A single drop of seawater Human skin A spoonful of soil ANSWER: All of the above – just about everywhere

Antibiotics can be effective only against a

bacterium.

All bacteria are harmful to humans. True or False?

False

_____ are viruses that only infect bacteria.

Bacteriophages

Dental plaque is one example of a(n) _____ , a colony of different prokaryote species that secrete slime that sticks the cells to a substrate and to each other.

biofilm

_____ are organisms that can live and grow in the absence of oxygen.

Anaerobes

When some bacteria are exposed to harsh conditions, they produce _____ , thick-coated protective structures that form within the bacterial cell.

endospores

_____ is the use of organisms to remove or detoxify toxic substances in the environment.

Bioremediation

The general term for organisms that are capable of producing disease is _____ .

pathogens

In prokaryotes, _____ is the transfer of DNA from one cell to another via temporary connection.

conjugation

In the process known as , _____ a single bacterium divides in half, producing two identical offspring.

prokaryotic fission

Which of the following best fits into the protist’s group?

Any eukaryote that is not a plant, animal, or fungus

Some protists, such as amoebas, rely on finger-like projections called ________ for capturing prey and moving.

pseudopods

A protist that lives inside a host organism and absorbs nutrients from that living host is

parasitic.

The protists include photosynthetic, parasitic, and pathogenic species. True or False?

True

Protists

obtain nutrition through a variety of different methods.

Protists that absorb nutrients from dead organic matter are called

decomposers.

The first protist chloroplast was likely to have been a(n)

photosynthetic bacterium.

The most complex group of unicellular protists is the ________.

ciliates

The ________ algae are an important source of carrageenan, which is used to thicken paints, cosmetics, and ice cream.

red

The foundation of a marine food chain is

algae.

Protists that have two nuclei are classified as

diplomonads.

Malaria is caused by a protist that is transmitted by the bite of ________.

mosquitoes

Which protist causes a sexually transmitted disease?

Trichomonas

The group of protistan aquatic organisms known generally as ________ produces most of the world’s oxygen.

phytoplankton

A parasitic protist that presents a major health problem to backpackers and hikers if they drink unfiltered stream or lake water is

Giardia.

Which group is commonly referred to as the "seaweeds"?

Brown algae

When a red tide occurs, huge numbers of microscopic organisms are filtered out of coastal waters by oysters and clams. This sometimes causes the shellfish to become toxic to people who eat them. The organisms that create the red tide are classified as

dinoflagellates.

The short, hair-like structures that propel Paramecium through the water are called

cilia.

Which of the following is considered to be most closely related to plants?

Green algae

The flexible cell membranes of some single-celled protists can form extensions called _____ that reach out and engulf prey.

pseudopods

_____ are single-celled photosynthetic protists that live in the upper layers of Earth’s lakes and oceans.

phytoplankton

_____ are excavates with double nuclei and multiple flagella.

diplomonads

_____ are alveolates with a round shape and two whip-like flagella that propel them through the water.

dinoflagellates

_____ are euglenozoans with distinctly structured mitochondria.

kinetoplastids

_____ are excavates that live inside animals in a mutualistic relationship with their host.

parabasalids

Photosynthetic protists are collectively known as _____. Nonphotosynthetic protists are collectively known as _____.

algae, protozoa

_____ are phytoplankton with glassy shells. These shells consist of identical top and bottom halves that fit together.

diatoms

The work done by Dr. Rose Ann Cattolico and her assistants at the University of Washington involves _______.

growing algae under different conditions and measuring their lipid production

Dr. Cattolico’s work has resulted in _______.

the identification of several algae species as potential sources of biofuel

The team is looking for an organism that _______.

grows fast and produces high-quality lipids

When technology is available, the next step in Dr. Cattolico’s research will be _______.

increasing the amount of algae grown at one time

Advantages of using algae as a biofuel include _______. Select all that apply.

ANSWER: decreasing the ecological impact of drilling for fossil fuels preserving jobs in the fossil fuel extraction industry ANSWER: producing fuel in a wider range of geographic areas ANSWER: replacing fossil fuels with a renewable source of energy

Which of these characteristics is shared by algae and seed plants?

chloroplasts

Which of these represents the sporophyte generation of the moss life cycle?

E

The sperm produced by mosses require _____ to reach an archegonium.

moisture

In mosses gametes are produced by _____; in ferns gametes are produced by _____.

mitosis … mitosis

In the moss life cycle _____ cells within a sporangium undergo _____ to produce _____ spores.

diploid … meiosis … haploid

In moss, _____ produce sperm.

antheridia

Which of these structures is diploid?

D

The conspicuous part of a fern plant is a _____.

diploid sporophyte

Where do fern antheridia develop?

on the underside of the gametophyte

Ovules are found within structure _____.

B

Which of these is unique to flowering plants?

double fertilization

The male gametophytes of flowering plants are also referred to as _____.

pollen grains

In flowering plants the integuments of the ovule develop into a(n) _____.

seed coat

A carpel is composed of _____.

stigma, style, and ovary

In flowering plants one megaspore gives rise to _____ nuclei.

eight haploid

A stamen consists of _____.

anther and filament

In angiosperms, pollination is the transfer of pollen grain to the _____ of a flower on the same plant or another plant of the same species.

stigma

_____ are tiny male gametophytes that carry sperm-producing cells. They are dispersed by wind or airborne insects.

pollen grains

The _____ is a waxy coating that covers the epidermis of of many land plants and limits the evaporation of water.

cuticle

Ginkgos are ______, plants whose seeds are not encased in an ovary. Apple trees are ______, flowering plants whose seeds are encased within ovaries that may mature into fruit.

gymnosperms, angiosperms

_____ are structures within the ovaries of flowers inside which female gametophytes develop.

ovules

In the life cycle of most plants, a diploid _____ generation produces haploid spores through meiotic cell division. The spores develop into a haploid _____ generation which produces sperm and eggs by mitosis. These fuse and produce a diploid zygote, and the life cycle begins again.

sporophyte, gametophyte

Pores called _____ in leaves and stems open to allow gas exchange but close when water is scarce, reducing the amount of water lost to evaporation.

stomata

_____ are gymnosperms that reproduce by means of seeds formed inside cones.

conifers

If you were hiking and wanted to show off your understanding of the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms, what characteristics could you see with your naked eye that would help you impress your friends?

Flowers or cones

Green algae are assumed to be ancestors of plants because

green algae make cellulose and starch.

Fruit production requires precious resources. What important benefit does fruit provide?

Is a means of dispersal of seeds

What pollinates most gymnosperms?

Wind

Based on the evolutionary tree, the closest relatives of seed plants are the

ferns.

The characteristic that sets plants apart from photosynthetic protists is the multicellular, dependent embryo. True or False?

True

Pollen and seeds evolved in response to

dry land environments.

Which of these is an advantage to a plant that moved onto land?

Increased sunlight availability

Name the period of rapid growth in a bacterial culture when the cells divide every few minutes.

Log Phase

Which of these must infect a living host to reproduce?

viruses

When provided the proper nutrients, which of these can grow and reproduce on their own without a living host?

bacteria

E. coli alternate between "swimming" and "tumbling" behavior by reversing the rotation of what appendages?

flagella

Chemotaxis in E. coli depends on what flagellar characteristic?

rotation

What bacterial structure does penicillin weaken?

cell wall

What do penicillin-resistant bacteria produce that protects them from that antibiotic?

penicillinase

What genus of bacteria has been shown to cause peptic ulcers?

Helicobacter

After passing through the stomach, a cyst of the parasite Cryptosporidium will release how many infective sporozooites(s)?

four

In which of the two celery stalks was the water column broken?

the dry one

How many stamens are present in the flower pictured?

?6

How many pistils (carpels) are present in the flower pictured?

?1

Angiosperms (flowering plants) are classified as either monocots or dicots. Is the flower pictured below a monocot or a dicot?

?monocot

What is the part of the flower labeled A in the diagram?

?stamens

What is the part of the flower labeled B in the diagram?

? pistils

What reproductive structure does the pod represent?

?ovule

What structure does the pea represent?

?flower

Organisms that produce disease are pathogens. True or False?

True

Some archaea can live in boiling water. True or False?

True

Cyanobacteria obtain energy from

sunlight

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes red algae from diatoms and dinoflagellates?

One is multicellular, whereas the other is not.

Viruses that attack prokaryotes are called

bacteriophages.

The classifications gram-positive and gram-negative are based on ________ of the bacterial cell wall.

staining

Because viruses have limited genetic material, their mutation rates are very low. True or False?

False

Ginkgos are classified as

gymnosperms.

Pollen production by the anthers of a flower is characteristic of

angiosperms.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the organism that causes malaria?

Unicellular

Mobile prokaryotes can move around with the help of

flagella.

Which of the following has pseudopods?

Amoeba

Trypanosoma is a protistan parasite that causes ________ ________ ________ in humans.

African sleeping sickness

Binary fission is the method by which bacteria

reproduce

Conifer seeds develop in ________.

cones

To strengthen the conducting cells and help plants stand erect without water for them to float in, land plants developed

lignan

Bioremediation is the process in which bacteria digest plants and release oily toxins. True or False?

False

Paralytic shellfish poisoning is caused by the group of protists known as ________.

dinoflagellates

Which of the following is within the size range of a typical prokaryote?

A cell 2 micrometers in diameter

Which of the following is the parasite apicomplexans that causes malaria if it infects a human host?

Plasmodium

You find a multicellular, eukaryotic organism that carries out photosynthesis and produces dependent embryos. It is classified as a(n) ________.

plant

The common cold is caused by a

virus

The eyespot of a Euglena cell enables it to

orient toward light.

A diploid generation of a plant is classified as a(n) ________.

sporophyte

Which protist group includes the dinoflagellates, apicomplexans, and ciliates?

Alveolates

Bacteria are multicellular microbes. True or False?

False

________ is the process by which bacteria return nutrients to the soil.

Decomposition

Which is the correct sequence of viral replication?

Penetration – genetic material replication transcription – protein synthesis assembly

Which of the following are important reproductive adaptations that allow plants to inhabit terrestrial environments?

Seeds and pollen

Cyanobacteria and phytoplankton are both

photosynthetic.

Which of the following is eukaryotic, usually acts as a producer in its ecosystem, and spins via its flagella?

Dinoflagellate

How do the flagella of bacteria differ from the flagella of archaea?

Archaeal flagella are thinner than bacterial flagella.

A complete lack of vascular tissue is characteristic of

mosses

Bacterial cell walls contain

peptidoglycan.

The haploid generation of a plant is called the sporophyte. True or False?

False

To limit water loss, land plants developed

a cuticle.

Which of the following is a parasitic protist that is spread by Anopheles mosquitoes?

Plasmodium

Anaerobic bacteria require high levels of oxygen to survive. True or False?

False

A virus basically consists of

RNA or DNA and a protein coat.

Vessel tubes are rigid because they contain ________ in their cell walls.

lignin

Which evolutionary plant innovation eliminated the need for sperm to swim through water in order to fertilize an egg, resulting in plants being truly adapted for reproduction on land?

Pollen

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