BIO 211- AF21

Which of the following provides a first line of defense against pathogens?
A. complement
B. intact skin and mucous membranes
C. antimicrobial proteins
D. inflammation

B. intact skin and mucous membranes

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?
A. NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide).
NK cells attack transplanted organs.
NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.

D. NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.

Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?
A. T lymphocytes
B. interferons
C. complement proteins
D. phagocytes

B. interferons

How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?

The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.

Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?

complement proteins

Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?
A. antibodies and complement proteins
B. natural killer (NK) cells
C. T cells
D. interferons

A. antibodies and complement proteins

With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?

opsonins

What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?

interferon

How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells?

Interferons block viral reproduction in healthy cells through the production of antiviral proteins.

Which of the following phases involves white blood cells leaving capillaries?
A. chemotaxis
B. leukocytosis
C. margination
D. diapedesis

diapedesis

Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
A. fever
B. opsonization
C. tissue repair
D. T cell activation

B. opsonization

Which class of tissue graft is the LEAST likely to be accepted by a patient’s body?
A. xenograft
B. autograft
C. isograft
D. allograft

A. xenograft

what is/are the most specific internal defense against disease?

T cells

Which antimicrobial protein triggers inflammation?

histamine

Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
A. multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells
C. immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
D. AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus

C. immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis

What types of antigen do T cells NOT recognize?
A. bacterial antigens
B. cancer antigens
C. processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells
D. self-antigens

D. self-antigens

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the adaptive immune response?
A. It is systemic.
B. It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
C. It is specific.
D.It has memory.

B. It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.

Which cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?

dendritic cells

The antivenom used to treat venomous snake bites is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake–how would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?

passive immunity, artificially acquired

Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity?
A. vaccines
B. infection
C. antibodies received in breast milk
D.antivenoms

A. vaccines

what occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?

neutralization

Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?

complement fixation and activation

T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________.

thymus

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells (APC)?
A. B cells
B. T ells
C. natural killer cells
D. memory celsl

A. B cells

Vaccines provide what type of immunity?

artificial active

Why are children given vaccinations?

so that they will develop antibodies against various diseases

Class II MHC proteins are found on which cell type

antigen-presenting cells

Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?

class II MHC proteins

Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?

CD8

Which types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?

all nucleated cells

Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?

CD8 cells

What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?

cytotoxic T (TC) cells

Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
A. macrophages: antigen-presenting cells
B. helper T cells: destroy infected cells
C. cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells
D. B cells: produce free antibodies

B. helper T cells: destroy infected cells

Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses?

helper T cells

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?

innate external defenses

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?

innate internal defesnes

What cells make antibodies?

plasma B cells

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?

an antigenic determinant

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?

humoral immunity

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?

cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

Cancer cells would be attacked by which cells?

cytotoxic T cells

Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections?
A. tears
B. mucus
C. urine
D. the pH of the blood

D. the pH of the blood

First line of defense.

intact skin and mucous membranes

second line of defense

inflammatory response

third line of defense

immune response

innate defense system

inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes

adaptive defense system

immune response

What type of immune system cell performs the most phagocytosis in the body?

macrophages

Four (or five) cardinal signs indicate inflammation. What specific sign of inflammation is the result of exudate in the tissue spaces?

edema (swelling)

Which of the following is NOT one of the effects produced by the release of inflammatory chemicals?
A. attraction of neutrophils
B. increased access of clotting chemicals
C. vasoconstriction
D. redness

C. vasoconstriction

When do neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors?

during leukocytosis

What is/are the specific target(s) of interferons?

the membrane receptors on healthy cells

true or false; Discharge is one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.

false

Which type of chemical induces fever?

pyrogens

A physician orders Tylenol for a temperature greater than 101 degrees F. The patient’s temperature is 100.4 F. What is the rationale for not medicating a fever of 100.4 F?

A mild or moderate fever is an adaptive response that seems to benefit the body. Bacteria need large amounts of zinc and iron to multiply. During fever, the liver and spleen sequester iron and zinc that bacteria need to multiply.

When the white blood cell count is depressed, the classic signs of infection such as redness, local heat, and swelling are not manifested. In this case, should the nurse avoid administering aspirin?

Yes, aspirin should be avoided because aspirin would disguise a fever that would indicate infection.

An advantage of innate immunity is ________.

its barriers that prevent pathogens from entering into the body

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation.
A. It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.
B. Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins.
C. It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function.
D. It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens.

A. It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

Inflammation ________.

brings more leukocytes to the site of infection

Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.

disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane

During inflammation fluids will passively diffuse out of blood vessels into the nearby, infected tissues. This implies all of the following except ________.
A. the osmolarity of the fluids surrounding infected tissue is higher than the plasma
B. nearby capillaries have become more permeable
C. the surrounding tissue will swell with excessive fluids
D. B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cells

D. B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cells

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
A. prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
B. disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
C. sets the stage for repair processes
D. replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

D. replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

vasodilation

Which of the following is not a role of activated complement?
A. enhancement of inflammation
B. prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
C. opsonization
D. insertion of MAC and cell lysis

B. prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions

Interferons ________.

interfere with viral replication within cells

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

natural killer cells

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.

opsonization

Innate immune system defenses include ________.

phagocytosis

Fever ________.

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

can kill cancer cells before the adaptive immune system is activated

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

true or false; Virus infected cells secrete interferons to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus and deny entry to them.

false

true or false; Dendritic cells and macrophages kill by ingestion and destruction of particulate matter in a process called phagocytosis.

true

true or false; Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.

true

true or false; Fever is often a beneficial immune response because it can speed the activities of leucocytes.

true

Which leukocytes are sometimes referred to as "housekeeping" phagocytes because of their role in clearing (cleaning up) cell debris?

macrophages

What is the most important reason you should not try draining an abscess by pressing on it?

may spread infection to deeper tissue

true or false; Haptens have immunogenicity but not reactivity.

false

Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells

cytotoxic T cell

Forms antibody producing cells

B cell

Absence results in no immune response

helper T cell

Slows or stops the immune response

regulatory T cell

Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen

memory cell

Choose the best description of an antigen.
A. a chemical that enhances or modifies immune response
B. part or a piece of a disease or pathogen
C. a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity
D. a particle (typically a foreign protein) that triggers inflammation

C. a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity

Which of the following best describes the qualities of most antigens?
A. macromolecules that are produced by the host organism
B. atomic elements that are harmful or toxic
C. atomic elements that are not normally present in the human body
D. macromolecules that are foreign to the host

D. macromolecules that are foreign to the host

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

haptens

Which of the statements below does not describe antigens?
A. Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity.
B. The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants.
C. Antigens only come from microbes.
D. Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.

C. Antigens only come from microbes.

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
A. small molecules
B. reactivity with an antibody
C. inhibit production of antibodies
D. contain many repeating chemical units

B. reactivity with an antibody

true or false; Some immunocompetent cells will never encounter an antigen to which they can bind and therefore will never be called to service in our lifetime.

true

How does a lymphocyte exhibit immunocompetence?

by being able to recognize their one specific antigen

Proliferation of lymphocytes occurs immediately after __________.

activation

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
A. It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist.
B. T cells and B cells become activated when they bind with recognized antigens.
C. The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs.
D. After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.

D. After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.

true or false; The nucleotide sequence within the genes that produce B cell receptor and antibodies are reshuffled by a process called somatic recombination. This produces the huge variability in antibody types.

true

Which of the following should produce naturally acquired, active immunity?
A. recovering from the chicken pox
B. drinking breast milk
C.injections of antibody produced by a goat
D> getting a flu vaccine

A. recovering from he chicken pox

Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?
A. A primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.
B. A primary response occurs faster than a secondary response.
C. A primary response leads to higher levels of antibodies than does a secondary response.
D. The antibodies produced in a primary response bind to antigens more efficiently than the antibodies produced in a secondary immune response.

A. A primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.

A vaccine is effective because ________.

the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.

the flu has several strains that change seasonally

Vaccines work by ________.

priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?
A. booster shot of vaccine
B. exposure to an antigen
C. passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
D.infusion of weakened viruses

C. passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?

antigen

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.
A. The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
B. A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body.
C. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
D. Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.

C. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

Clonal selection of B cells ________.

results in the formation of plasma cells

The primary immune response ________.

has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

Antibody functions include all of the following except ________.
A. binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
B. cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
C. linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
D. targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis

B. cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

true or false; Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells kill by secretion of proteins. The first called perforin which forms complexes that penetrate the cell membrane and allows the passage of the apoptosis inducing protein granzyme to enter the targeted cell.

true

true or false; Antibodies mostly act against extracellular targets in body fluids and are therefore considered part of the humoral branch of adaptive immunity.

true

Where does most exogenous antigen presentation take place?

in lymphoid tissue and organs

Which of the following activate CD8 cells?
A. antigens on class II MHC proteins
B.peptides containing 14-17 amino acids
C. antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins
D.exogenous antigens

C. antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins

Which of these mechanisms do cytotoxic T (TC) cells use to destroy a target–that is, deliver a lethal hit?
A. opsonization
B. perforation of the membrane
C. the seeking of cells lacking class I MHC proteins
D.agglutination of target cells

B. perforation of the membrane

Which type of T cell will recognize antigens associated with an organ transplant?

cytotoxic T (TC) cells

What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does NOT receive a co-stimulatory signal?
A.The T cell becomes a memory cell.
B. The T cell enters a state of anergy.
C. The T cell releases interleukins.
D. The T cell is activated.

B. The T cell enters a state of anergy.

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

B-lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reason but one. Which of the following is not one of the reasons B-lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity?
A. They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately.
B. They produce memory cells when activated.
C. Their receptors will bind to only one antigen.
D. They require costimulation from an activated T-helper cell.

A. They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately.

Overlap in the innate and adaptive immune system is seen in all of the following examples but one. Which of the following examples does not illustrate the overlap of innate and adaptive immune responses?
A. Dendritic cells presenting antigens on their MHC II proteins to T-helper cells.
B. Plasma cells that produce large amounts of IgE that will ultimately allow mast cells to release histamine.
C. Macrophages becoming activated macrophages in response to cytokines released by T-helper cells.
D. NK cells causing apoptosis of an abnormal host cell, lacking MHC proteins.

D. NK cells causing apoptosis of an abnormal host cell, lacking MHC proteins.

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
A. cytotoxic
B. antigenic
C. helper
D. regulatory

B. antigenic

Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?
A.NK cells attack cells that display abnormal or lack MHC antigens.
B. NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.
C. NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.
D. NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

D. NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

Regulatory T cells ________.

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

T-cell activation requires ________.

antigen binding and co-stimulation

Which of the following statements is incorrect or false?
A. Class I MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of almost all body cells.
B. MHC proteins are the cell’s identity markers.
C. Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.
D. Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers

C. Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.

Immunocompetence ________.

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

Cytotoxic T cells ________.

can directly attack and kill other cells of the body

Helper T cells ________.

function in the adaptive immune system activation

Which cells has the largest role and most widespread effect on immunity?

helper T cell

true or false; Viral infection will provoke cell mediated immunity but will not activate a humoral response.

false

A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition. He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi’s sarcoma) and a persistent cough. A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes, and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count. Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex. What is likely to be the man’s problem and what is his prognosis?

He is probably suffering from AIDS. His outlook is poor once the disease has progressed to this advanced stage. There is no cure, and drug therapy has had limited short-term success.

Allergens differ from antigens because ________.

allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

true or false; Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream.

true

true or false; In a case of immediate hypersensitivity the immune system responds with an allergic response on the first exposure to the allergen.

false

true or false; Subacute hypersensitivities are categorically less harmful than acute (immediate) hypersensitivities.

false

What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?

Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.

What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?

An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.

The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?

memory B cells

Correctly order the steps involved cellular immunity:
The Tc recognizes the infected host cell
The Tc interacts with epitope presented by MHC-I on the dendritic cell
The Tc secretes perforin and granzyme, causing apoptosis
The helper T cell activates the Tc cell

2,4,1,3

Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
A. Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
B. Secretion of perforin
C. Secretion of granzyme
D. Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR

A. Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein

Place the following steps of phagocytosis in the order that they occur:
Endosome fuses with lysozome
Dendritic cell engulfs Rhinovirus
Epitopes are attached to MHC-II
Digestion of the Rhinovirus
MHC-II plus the attached epitope move to the outside of the dendritic cell

2,1,4,3,5

Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?
A. BCR and epitope
B. BCR and TCR
C. CD4 and MHC-II
D. CD8 and MHC-I

B. BCR and TCR

Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?
A. Activation of helper T cells by dendritic cells
B. Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells
C. Differentiation of plasma cells
D>Immature B cells conducting surveillance for foreign epitopes

B. Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells

A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?

Clonal selection of B cells

Which of the following statements is true?
A. Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
B. Innate defenses are enough to keep a person healthy.
C. Adaptive defenses include humoral immunity only.
D. Memory B cells are typically established when the B cell binds to an antigen.

A. Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.

The most dangerous type of skin cancer is __________.

melanoma

true or false; In the presence of sunlight, Vitamin D precursors are produced. This is important for the transport of sodium in our intestines. Is this statement true or false?

false

Which of the following is a metabolic function of skin?
A. utaneous sensation
B. synthesis of a vitamin D precursor
C. body temperature regulation
D. elimination of nitrogenous wastes

B. synthesis of a vitamin D precursor

ture or false; Channel-mediated diffusion is a form of active transport.

false

Which of the following would be a sign of a melanoma?
A. regular borders
B. asymmetry
C. uniform coloration
D. a size smaller than 6 mm

B. asymmetry

Why is it necessary for glucose to be pumped into the cell rather than diffusing in?

Glucose may have to be moved against a concentration gradient.

The skin is permeable to organic solvents, such as acetone or turpentine, because they ________.

can dissolve the lipid bilayers of epidermal and dermal cell plasma membranes

The skin is NOT a __________ barrier.

metabolic

During cold weather, blood vessels located in the dermis undergo vasoconstriction restricting blood flow into the skin. This produces additional body heat by routing blood to what effector organ?

skeletal muscle

Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is/are released by mast cells?
A. prostaglandins
B. complement
C.histamine
D.kinins

C.histamine

What characterizes the diapedesis phase of phagocyte mobilization?
A. chemotaxis
B. margination
C. leukocytosis
D. Neutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.

D. Neutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.

A primary active transport process is one in which __________.

molecules move through transport proteins that have been activated by ATP

Some transport processes use transport proteins in the plasma membrane, but do not require ATP. This type of transport is known as _____.

facilitated diffusion

The majority of water molecules moving across plasma membranes by osmosis do so via a process that is most similar to ____.

facilitated diffusion

The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to move sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This statement describes _____.

primary active transport

A vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular fluid. This statement describes _____.

exocytosis

What part of the antibody’s structure determines its class?

constant (C) region

What characterizes the chemotaxis phase of phagocyte mobilization?

Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.

What type of cell is the precursor to the helper T cell?

CD4 cell

Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be?

passive artificial immunity

Activated CD8 cells become __________.

cytotoxic T cells

Binding of an eosinophil to an antibody-coated parasitic worm involves binding of the antibody’s stem region to a(n) ______.

plasma membrane protein on the eosinophil’s surface

In certain classes of antibody, the monomeric versions join to form dimers. What portions of the molecules adhere to each other to form these dimers?

the stem regions

Treatment of an abscess often requires that it be surgically drained because ______.

the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens

Which of the following is NOT a role of connective tissue?
A. insulation
B. transport
C. support
D.absorption

D. absorption

Which of the following are properly matched?
A. IgM: secreted in tears
B. IgA: primary antibody during primary immune response
C. IgE: primary antibody of the secondary immune response
D. IgG: most abundant antibody

D. IgG: most abundant antibody

A class I MHC protein presents an antigen. What type of cell is likely presenting and to what type of cell would it be presented?

Any nucleated cell would be presented to a CD8 cell.

Connective tissues are made of different combinations of ground substance and fibers. As you compare slides of connective tissues, which would most likely be the strongest type of connective tissue based on the composition of ground substance and fibers?

connective tissues high in collagen fibers

What class of antibody acts to clump red blood cells because of a transfusion of mismatched blood?

immunoglobulin M (IgM)

Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
A. antibodies
B. histamines
C. prostaglandins
D. kinins

A. antibodies

How many sites on this antibody molecule have potential to bind to a non-self molecule?

2

__________ are water-soluble, complex glycoproteins that are secreted by goblet cells.

Mucins

Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?

mast cells

Adaptive defenses require us to use what molecules that can identify whether a cell is a self or nonself cell?

antibodies

Which property is most consistent in the majority of connective tissues?

greater amount of extracellular matrix compared to cellular content

Plasma cell neoplasms are disorders in which abnormal plasma (myeloma) cells form tumors in bone or soft tissues. These altered cells may produce a large quantity of M protein, an immunoglobulin fragment with no protective qualities. What effect would M protein have upon blood?

increased viscosity

In connective tissue, the role of elastic fibers is to __________.

provide flexibility

What is the purpose of the energy extracted from ATP in this figure?

to generate a sodium concentration gradient

You observe a uniform tissue under a microscope. There is no lumen. The material looks densely packed, but you do not observe many nuclei. It appears that there are strands of fibers running in parallel directions. What type of tissue are you looking at?

connective tissue

Which tissue is correctly paired with its primary cell type?
A. cartilage; fibroblast
B. connective tissue proper; chondroblast
C. bone; osteoblast
D. bone; fibrocyte

C. bone; osteoblast

Why are adipose tissue, blood, and bone all considered to be connective tissues?

They have a common origin: mesenchyme.

What is the value for the net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriolar end of the capillary?

10 mm Hg (NFP) = (HPc + OPif) – (HPif + OPc).

The Na+−K+ pump binds ATP when the pump is in its _______ state

dephosphorylated

he Na+−K+ pump binds _____ when the pump is in its dephosphorylated state.

Na+

The Na+−K+ pump can bind ATP only after the pump

releases phosphate

The Na+−K+ pump transports _____ from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm.

K+

true or false; Bulk flow at capillaries is driven by osmotic pressure gradients.

false

Assume a person is experiencing a hemorrhage and the HPc has dropped to 23 mm Hg at the arteriole end of the capillary. Calculate net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriole end of the capillary.

-2 mm Hg Net filtration pressure (NFP) for the arteriole end of the capillary = (HPc + OPif) – (HPif + OPc) = (23 + 1) – (0 + 26).

Which statement describes the origin of lymph fluid?
A. Lymph is secreted into the lymph vessels.
B. Lymph is collected from fluid that accumulates in veins as blood slowly circulates back toward the heart.
C. Lymph is collected from atrial to venous anastomoses.
D. Lymph is excess fluid formed from plasma that accumulates in the tissues as interstitial fluid.

D. Lymph is excess fluid formed from plasma that accumulates in the tissues as interstitial fluid.

A muscle that is being regularly contracted during exercise will attract blood flow by dilating arterioles. Which of these factors would contribute to the effect?
A. increased levels of oxygen
B. increased levels of carbon dioxide
C. an increase in sympathetic tone
D.heat loss from the muscle

B. increased levels of carbon dioxide

Which lymphoid organ(s) appear(s) before the others?

thymus

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs do(es) NOT contain reticular connective tissue?
A. spleen
B. thymus
C. lymph nodes
D.tonsils

B. thymus

Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where B lymphocytes become immunocompetent B cells?

red bone marrow

Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymph organ?
A. thymus
B. tonsil
C. spleen
D. lymph node

A. thymus

The __________ tonsils are also called the adenoids.

pharyngeal

Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the solutions on either side. Predict what will occur to the water level if large, nondiffusible solutes are added only to the left arm of the tube.
Examine the lower left of Focus Figure 19.1. Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the solutions on either side. Predict what will occur to the water level if large, nondiffusible solutes are added only to the left arm of the tube.
A. The water level on the left side of the tube will fall.
B. The water level on the left side of the U-tube will rise.
C. The water level will stay the same.
D. The water level on each side will rise.

B. The water level on the left side of the U-tube will rise.

Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable capillary membrane made of simple squamous epithelium separating the solutions on either side. Blood will be on the left side of the tube, and watery extracellular fluid (ECF) will be on the right side of the tube. Predict what will occur to the water levels by hydrostatic pressure, the pressure of watery fluid pushing on a boundary.
Examine the lower left of Focus Figure 19.1.
Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable capillary membrane made of simple squamous epithelium separating the solutions on either side. Blood will be on the left side of the tube, and watery extracellular fluid (ECF) will be on the right side of the tube. Predict what will occur to the water levels by hydrostatic pressure, the pressure of watery fluid pushing on a boundary.
A. A pump will push down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood; fluid levels on each side will drop as pressure rises.
B. A pump will push down on the right arm of the U-tube; water levels will stay the same.
C. A pump pushing down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood will increase ECF fluid levels on the right side.
D. A pump will push down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood; pressure will rise on the left side and water levels will stay the same.

C. A pump pushing down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood will increase ECF fluid levels on the right side.

In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.

blood pressure

The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.

capillary; interstitial fluid

Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?

34 mm Hg

The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.

proteins in blood

Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?

net osmotic pressure

Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?

venous

Which of the following is NOT a capillary transport mechanism?
Which of the following is NOT a capillary transport mechanism?
A. movement through intracellular clefts or fenestrations
B. diffusion through the endothelial cell membrane
C. bulk flow
D. transport via vesicles or caveolae

C. bulk flow

What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries?

osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)

Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of leukocytes?
Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of leukocytes?
A. leukocytosis
B. amoeboid motion
C. positive chemotaxis
D. diapedesis

A. leukocytosis

Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?

lymphocytes

Which leukocyte might you expect to find in higher quantities in a person experiencing allergies?

eosinphil

Abnormally low levels of erythrocytes caused by excessive bleeding is called______.

hemorrhagic anemia

Which of the following leukocyte is NOT correctly matched with its function?
Which of the following leukocyte is NOT correctly matched with its function?
A. eosinophil: bacterial macrophage
B. basophils: inflammation
C. monocytes: macrophage
D. lymphocytes: immune response against viral infections

A. eosinophil: bacterial macrophage

Which granulated leukocyte is most likely to be active during a bacterial infection?

neutrophils