AP2 CHAPTERS 18-

What term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?

transportation

what term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies

protection

TRUE OR FALSE. blood helps regulate the pH and the temperature of the body

true

oxygen poor blood is _ in color

dark red

the temperature of blood is about _ than measured body temperature

1 C higher

the viscosity of blood is _ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and _ proportional to the amount of fluid

directly indirectly

blood plasma is slightly _; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of _

basic proteins

typically, an adults body contains _ of blood

5 liters

blood is correctly classified as a(n)

tissue

the "buffy" coat of the middle layer of a centrifuged blood sample is composed of

platelets and leukocytes

when blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the

erythrocytes

plasma makes up about _ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood

55

the percentage of the volume of all formed elements in the blood is called the

hematocrit

the clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of

erythrocytes in the blood

a comparison of the clinical hematocrit and true hematocrit would indicate that

their values are very similar

if a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his/her blood would likely

decrease

the most numerous of the formed elements, by far, are the

erythrocytes

TRUE OR FALSE. platelets are formed elements

true

leukocytes are the _ of the formed elements, and leukocytes have _

largest prominent nuclei

a malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. as a result, colloid osmotic pressure

decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space

what most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight

92%

one of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. if too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will

decrease

the smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the

albumins

the globulins make up about _ percent of all plasma proteins

37

an individual's hematocrit would vary with

age sex altitude (all of the above)

beta globulins transport _, whereas gamma globulins are _

iron ions antibodies

sodium, calcium, and bicarbonate are all described as plasma

electrolytes

glucose is a

polar molecule, and therefore is dissolves readily in plasma

TRUE OR FALSE. iron, lactic acid, and lipids are all considered to be nutrients in blood plasma

true

one of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to

increase the viscosity of the blood

the reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a "formed element" rather than "cell" is that erythrocytes

lack a nucleus and organelles

the hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to

both oxygen and carbon dioxide

the production of leukocytes is called

leukopoiesis

TRUE OR FALSE. natural killer cells derive from T-tymphoblasts and monocytes derive from the granulocyte line

false

production of platelets is called

thrombopoiesis

extensions from megakaryocytic that extend through blood vessel walls in red marrow are sliced from the cells by the force of blood flow. these extensions are

proplatelets

platelets are continually produced in the red bone marrow by cells called

megakaryocytes

_ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytic in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets

thrombopoietin

TRUE OR FALSE. during hemopoiesis, the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only

true

process of producing the formed elements of blood is called

hemopoiesis

what depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoisis

myeloid stem cell proerythroblast erythroblast normoblast reticulocyte mature erythrocyte

the process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called

hemocytoblasts

TRUE OR FALSE. a reticulocyte is a cell formed during erythropoiesis that has lost its nucleus and all organelles except some ribosomes

true

in hemopoiesis, granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _ line

myeloid

TRUE OR FALSE. most colony stimulating factors are growth factors

true

macrophage colony stimulating factor stimulates the production of

monocytes from monoblasts

how many globins are found in a single hemoglobin molecule

4

how many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin

4

the carbon dioxide molecules that bind to the hemoglobin molecule are attached to the _ units

globin

the life span of an erythrocyte is about _ days

120

congenital hemolytic anemia is

when destruction of erythrocytes is more rapid than normal

old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the

liver and spleen

what events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes

heme group is converted into biliverdin iron ions in hemoglobin are removed iron ions are stored in liver membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused

what are characteristics of type O blood

has anti A antibodies has anti B antibodies has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes

what are characteristics of type A blood

has anti B antibodies has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes will agglutinate with blood type B

what are characteristics of type Rh negative blood

only under certain conditions will Rh antibodies be present is inherited independent of the ABO group

if agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate

the wrong blood type was used

the agglutinogens that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are

found on the surface of erythrocytes

what is going to result in significant agglutination

donor is type AB, recipient is type B

the main function of leukocytes is to

defend against pathogens

what are characteristics of leukocytes

have a nucleus have no hemoglobin depending on type, may or may not contain granules

what leukocytes are granulocytes

neutrophils eosinophils basophils

what type of leukocyte releases histamine

basophil

the type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a

neutrophil

t cells are a category of

lymphocytes

the type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a

monocyte

what are the most numerous of the leukocytes

neutrophils

what are the least numerous of the leukocytes

basophils

the test that measures the amount of each type of leukocyte in the blood is a _ count

differential

when trying to diagnose an infection that alters the percentages of leukocytes types found in the blood, it is useful for clinicians to perform a

white blood cell differential count

the growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granuloctyes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is

multi-CSF

what leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

TRUE OR FALSE. platelets are roughly the same size as erythrocytes, and like erythrocytes, they eject their nucleus just before entering circulation

false

platelets play a key role in _, but if they are not used they are broken down after about _ days

hemostasis 9

the first phase in hemostasis is

vascular spasm

the first phase of hemostasis involves

blood vessel constriction

TRUE OR FALSE. vascular spasm is triggered by blood vessel injury and further triggered by the release of serotonin

true

vascular spams last

several minutes when tissue damage is extensive

prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a

platelet repellant

during platelet plug formation, platelets begin to stick to

collagen with the assistance of von Willebrand factor

TRUE OR FALSE. for a relatively small injury, a platelet plug is formed within 1 minute

true

as a platelet plug forms at an injury site platelets become activated and their cytoplasm

degranulates as they release chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A2

TRUE OR FALSE. the extrinsic pathway refers to a clotting system that is initiated by chemicals that come from outside the body

false

which clotting pathway involves more steps and take more time

intrinsic pathway

what clotting pathway involves the combining of thromboplastin with factor VII and calcium

extrinsic pathway

what is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting

prothrombin is activated to thrombin

the formation of a web like polymer of fibrin occurs late in the _ pathway

common

when over 10% of the body's blood has been lost, a survival response occurs involving activation of the _ nervous sytem

sympathetic

to compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous system triggers

vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate

when actinomyosin of platelets contracts and squeezes the serum out of a clot the process is called clot _

retraction

fibrinolysis involves _ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein _

destruction plasmin

in fetal development, hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red bone marrow at approx

10 weeks

TRUE OR FALSE. compared to young adults, older individuals have relatively less red bone marrow

true

in young children, hemopoiesis occurs in most of their bones, but in adulthood it primarily occurs in

flat bones of the axial skeleton

in many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be

decreased in number and less efficient

TRUE OR FALSE. when viewing a centrifuged blood sample, the erythrocytes will be on the top

false

TRUE OR FALSE. simply put, antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens

true

TOF. the antigen antibody reaction is an example of the regulation function of blood

false

TOF. erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves

true

TOF. the blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive

false

TOF. the ABO and Rh blood types are inherited independently of each other

true

TOF. macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria, cell fragments, dead cells, and debris

true

TOF. the GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells

true

TOF. M-CSF is a growth factor that stimulates the production of monocytes from myeloblast cells

false

when the proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is called _

serum

fibrin, which is produced from the plasma protein _, helps form blood clots

fibrinogen

when a finger is pricked, the blood will stop flowing shortly because of the action of the formed elements called _

platelets

a _ is the name for the cylinder shape that erythrocytes form as they line up in single file for passage through the smallest blood vessels

roueau

the molecule to which both oxygen and carbon dioxide can attach in an erythrocyte is called _

hemoglobin

two of the four glob in chains in the hemoglobin molecule are called alpha chains and the other two are called _ chains

beta

the iron of the heme unit of hemoglobin is transported in the blood by the protein _ after the aged erythrocytes are phagocytized

transferrin

the iron that has been transferred to the liver after the aged erythrocytes were phagocytized is stored by the protein _

ferritin

aged erythrocytes are phagocytized in the liver and spleen by cells called _

macrophages

the heme group form the phagocytized erythrocyte is converted into a green pigment called _

biliverdin

a person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not surface antigen B, is said to have type _ blood

A

the rupture of erythrocytes is called _

hemolysis

surface antigens found on erythrocytes are also called _ based on the response initiated when they interact with antibodies

agglutinogens

the binding of antibodies in the blood plasma to their corresponding surface antigens on the erythrocyte plasma membrane is called _

agglutination

a reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called

leukopenia

movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called

diapedesis

_ is the attraction of leukocytes to a site of infection due to the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens

chemotaxis

_ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in the blood

neutrophils

making up two to four percent of the leukocytes, the _ increase in number when they react to or phagocytize antigen antibody complexes or allergens

eosinophils

among the three categories of lymphocytes, it is the _ killer cells that attack abnormal and infected tissue cells

natural

an abnormally small number of platelets in circulating blood is termed

thrombocytopenia

erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the _ to increase the rate of production and maturation of erythrocyte progenitor and erythroblast cells

kidney

TOF. the main function of the cardiovascular system are the transport and exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body

true

the units for perfusion of blood are typically

millimeters per minute per gram

occlusion of blood vessels tend to lead to

inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues

what can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body

there is a unidirectional blood flow arteries carry blood away from the heart veins carry blood toward the heart

the pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. the pulmonary trunk is an

artery

TOF. arteries carry blood toward the heart, while veins carry blood away from the heart

false

TOF. the receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and the forcefully pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles

true

what analogy fits the human heart

it is like a double pump, each working side by side with the other

what carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

pulmonary veins

what circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic region

systemic circuit

which of the cardiovascular systems circuit has deoxygenated blood in its arteries?

pulmonary circuit

the left ventricle and aorta are part of which circuit of the cardiovascular system

systemic circuit

what heart chambers would contain deoxygenated blood

right atrium and right ventricle

the inferior, conical end of the heart is called the

apex

what pair is located more anteriorly in a heart in normal position

right atrium and right ventricle

the base of the heart faces in the _ directions

posterior and superior

what correctly describes the heart's apex

projects slightly anterinferiorly toward the left side of the body

the epicardium is another name for the

visceral layer of the serous pericardium

the serous fluid within the pericardium cavity works to

lubricate membranes of the pericardium

the pericardial cavity is between the

visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium

what layer is made of dense irregular connective tissue

fibrous pericardium

TOF. the pericardium helps prevent overfilling of the heart and it lessens the friction of movements during heartbeats

true

the atria are separated from the ventricles externally by the

coronary sulcus

the posterior inter ventricular sulcus

is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart

each of the receiving chambers of the heart has a wrinkled flaplike extension, the one that is more visible from an anterior view is the

right auricle

from which view is the connection between the pulmonary veins and the heart most visible

posterior view

layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the

myocardium

what describes the endocardium

has single layer of epithelium has layer of areolar connective tissue epithelial cells are squamous

deep to the interventricular sulci is the thick muscular wall that divides the left and right ventricles, known as the interventricular

septum

the fossa ovals appears just above the opening of the coronary sinus within the

right atrium

the papillary muscles attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves by means of the

chordae tendineae

the internal wall of surface of each ventricle displays large, smooth, irregular muscular ridges called

trabeculae carneae

pectinate muscles are found on the

internal walls of the right and left atria

what are the functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart

separates the atria and ventricles anchors the heart valves provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium

what feature permits the compression necessary to pump large volumes of blood out of the ventricles

arrangement of cardiac muscle in the heart wall

what are the differences between the cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle in less extensive cardiac muscle has intercalated discs; skeletal muscle does not cardiac muscle has 1 or 2 nuclei per cell; skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell

what are the cell to cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers called

intercalated discs

TOF. myofibrils within cardiac muscle cells are aligned in sarcomeres

true

the metabolic pathways of cardiac muscle make it

somewhat susceptible to heart attack, since it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism

metabolically, cardiac muscle relies on

aerobic metabolism using many mitochondria and a rich supply of myoglobin

TOF. cardiac muscle is able to use a variety of fuel types for cellular respiration

true

the heart valves

permit the passage of blood in one direction

what action leads to the closure of the right atrioventricular valve

contraction of the right ventricle

how many half moon shaped, pocket like cusps are found in each semilunar valve

3

what valves prevents the back flow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax

aortic semilunar valve

as blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart, it

pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them

typically, there are _ papillary muscles that project from the wall of the left ventricle and attach to the chordae tendineae that supports the left AV valve

two

TOF. nodal cells contain fast voltage gated calcium channels

true

TOF. the hearts nodal cells have a more negative resting potential that neurons do, because nodal cells lack leak channels for sodium and potassium ions

false

an auto rhythmic heart cell is one in which

action potentials fire spontaneously

TOF. SA nodal cells are autorhythmic

true

once an SA nodal cells reaches threshold, the depolarization phase occurs during which

calcium comes in through fast voltage gated channels

for the repolarization phase of an SA nodal cell action potential

calcium channels close and potassium channels open

vagal tone refers to the

decreasing of the heart rate below its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation

what is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle

SA node through the atria AV node AV bundle bundle branches purkinje fibers through the atria

at the AV node of the conduction system, the action potential is

delayed due to the cells being small and having few gap junctions

the membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains

fast voltage gated sodium channels and slow voltage gated calcium channels & calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell

during the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell's action potential, the membrane stays

depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters

as with action potentials in other types of cells, the repolarization of cardiac muscle cells involves the

exit of potassium through voltage gates channels

most of the calcium that triggers contraction of cardiac muscle comes

from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell

to initiate a cardiac muscle cell contraction, calcium

binds to troponin

the time that starts when a muscle cell is depolarized and ends when it is able to be restimulated is the _ period

refractory

TOF. like skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells have an absolute refractory period prior to repolarization

True

which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period

cardiac muscle cell

the plateau phase of an action potential

allows cardiac muscle cells to contract and then relax without locking up

what part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava

SA node

the atrioventricular node is located in the

floor of the right atrium

in an ECG, what does the T wave denote

repolarization of the ventricles

in an EKG, the P wave is generated when the

atria depolarize

what segment of the ECG reflects the plateau phase of ventricular muscle cells action potentials

S-T segment

someone with a heart block would have

a long P-R interval

someone with tachyarrhythmia would be expected to show an abnormally

small Q-T interval

during the S-T segment, what is occurring within cardiac muscle cells

calcium is entering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells

during a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time

2

during ventricular systole

the semilunar valves open and the AV valves close

the opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by

pressure changes of alternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle

blood moves into and then out of a heart chamber because

it moves along its pressure gradient, and that gradient depends on contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle

atrial systole occurs just before

early ventricular systole

the period of time when ventricles begin to contract is early ventricular

systole

just prior to atrial systole

all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are open

TOF. immediately prior to atrial systole, blood continues to enter the atria from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins

true

the shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase

early ventricular diastole

cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped

by a single ventricle in one minute

cardiac output is usually expressed in

liters per minute

cardiac output equals the

heart rate multiplied by stroke volume

cardiac reserve is

the increase in cardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorous exercise

TOF. cardiac reserve is greater in a nonatheletic individual than in a highly trained athelete

false

a chemical that alters heart rate is known as an _ agent

chronotropic

large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. such a stimulant is a

positive chronotropic agent

norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent since it causes

an increase in the firing rate of SA node cells

what is not one of the three main factors influencing stroke volume

chronotropic agents

according to the Frank Starling law

as the volume of blood entering the heart increases, ventricular contractions become more forceful

resistance in arteries to the ejection of blood by the heart is known as

afterload

TOF. preload is the stretch of the heart wall as determined by the amount of blood returned by the veins

true

a drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of cross bridges formed during the hearts contractions would be a

negative inotropic agent

what would cause a decrease in cardiac output

an increase in afterload

parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via

CN X

sympathetic innervation of the heart arises from the _ segments of the spinal cord

T1-T5

TOF. parasympathetic innervation influences the heart rate, but generally tends to have no direct effect on the force of contractions

true

sympathetic innervation of the heart

increases the heart rate increases the force of contractions

the right border of the heart is supplied by the

right marginal artery

this artery is sometimes referred to as the "widow maker" because blockage of it often leads to fatal heart attack. it serves the front of the heart and is more formally called the _ _ artery

anterior interventricular OR left anterior descending

the left and right coronary arteries

are functional end arteries since the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies

what would you expect a cardiologist to recommend if there was substantial occlusion to a patient's left coronary artery but not the right coronary artery

since this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate, the cardiologist would treat the condition

the posterior interventricular artery is a branch off of the

right coronary artery

coronary vessels are open when the heart is

relaxed

TOF. blood flow to the heart wall courses through coronary vessels in a steady stream

false

the great cardiac vein runs alongside the

anterior interventricular artery

the function of the coronary sinus is to

take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium

which vein drains the posterior aspect of the ventricles of the heart

middle cardiac vein

what prenatal structure forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

truncus arteriosus

the foramen ovale of the fetal heart is an opening in the

interatrial septum

the tetralogy of Fallot refers to

developmental disorder that is a cardiac septal defect

TOF. all of the heart's sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium

true

TOF. the left ventricle walls are typically thicker than the right ventricular wall

true

TOF. it is the contraction of the atria during atrial systole that completes the filling of the ventricles while the ventricles are in diastole

true

TOF. about 70% of the ventricle filling is achieved passively without the contraction of the atria

true

TOF. during ventricular contraction the semilunar valves close in order to permit the blood to enter the large arterial trunks that carry blood away from the heart

false

TOF. though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat, it can increase or decrease the heart rate

true

TOF. the purkinje fibers are small fibers within the atria that conduct impulses rapidly

false

the middle layer of the heart wall that is made of cardiac muscle tissue is the __

myocardium

the numerous __ within the intercalated discs prevent cardiac muscle fibers from pulling apart

desmosomes

the anterior part of each atrium is a flaplike extension called an __

auricle

the inferior chambers of the heart are called

ventricles

the property that allows the heart to initiate each heartbeat itself is called

autorhythmicity

the heartbeat is initiated by the cells of the __ node

sinoatrial OR SA

__ innervation increases the rate and the force of heart contraction

sympathetic

the connections shared by arteries that allow them to shunt blood from one artery to another are called __

anastomoses

the __ cardiac vein travels alongside the right marginal artery

small

most coronary blood blow occurs during ventricular __

diastole

the term used to describe the inadequate blood flow to a structure causes by obstruction of the blood supply is __

ischemia

the __ is composed of circulatory arranged layers of smooth muscle cells

tunica media

a network of small arteries called the __ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels

vasa vasorum

in arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the

tunica media

the __ is composed on an endothelium and a sub endothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue

tunica intima

gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur between the __ and the tissues of the body

capillaries

as an arterial pathway moves farther from the heart, the arteries

get smaller

as a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins

get larger

what are found in the capillary wall

endothelium intercellular clefts basement membrane

in general, as an artery's diameter decreases, the artery walls show

an increase in the relative amount of smooth muscle and a decrease in the relative amount of elastic fibers

the largest arteries of the body are classified as

elastic arteries

what are the artery types containing the internal and external elastic laminae

muscular arteries

the function of the postcapillary venule is to

drain the capillary bed

precapillary sphincters will

control blood flow into the true capillaries cause blood to flow directly from the met arteriole into the post capillary venule open when the tissue needs nutrients close when the tissues needs have been met (all answers correct)

sinusoids are found in

bone marrow spleen liver

what is the most common type of capillary

continuous

a venule becomes a vein when its diameter is greater than __ micrometers

100

valves in veins

cause venous blood flow to go in only one direction

what part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood

systemic veins

when physical exertion has ended and the body is at rest, veins demonstrate

vasodilation so that they function as blood reservoirs

circulation to the spleen demonstrates a

simple pathway, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ

a portal system

is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart

oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of

diffusion from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration

TOF. some large molecules, such as fatty acids, are transported between capillaries and tissues by vesicular transport

true

what statement accurately compares filtration and reabsorption

filtration involves bulk flow of fluid out of the blood, whereas reabsorption is bulk flow back into the blood

TOF. filtration and reabsorption are processes that involve water but not solutes

false

blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to

the proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption

what statement is accurate

filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure

net filtration pressure is equal to the

net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure

as blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure

decreases, as blood hydrostatic pressure decreases

if someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood, then net filtration pressure would

be higher than normal

if someone suffered from hypertension, such that the blood pressure in their capillaries was elevated, then net filtration pressure would be

above normal

TOF. blood hydrostatic pressure in systemic capillaries is greater than interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

true

concerning the exchange between blood and interstitial fluid at systemic capillaries

more fluid is filtered than reabsorbed

considering the bulk flow that occurs at capillary beds, the lymphatic system is needed to

reabsorb excess fluid from the interstitial fluid

TOF. although local blood flow to different organs varies from time to time, the distribution of blood vessels in the various organs of the body is fairly similar

false

TOF. the higher the degree of vascularization is a tissue, the greater the potential for local blood flow

true

tendons and ligaments have

a low degree of vascularization, therefore low perfusion and slow healing

the formation of new blood vessels is a process known as

angiogenesis

if someone were to decrease their food intake and increase aerobic exercise, they might lose adipose tissue and condition their muscles. these changes would also influence their blood vessels, as there would be

regression of blood vessels in adipose and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle

angiogenisis..

allows for an increase in the perfusion of a local tissue

TOF. a vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed

false

at a capillary bed, a vasoconstrictor

stimulates precapillary sphincters and decreases local blood flow

imagine yourself sitting in an awkward position in an uncomfortable chair that is depriving part of your leg from normal blood flow. this deprivation of adequate perfusion will result in what sort of local changes in your leg

build up of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions will cause vasoconstriction

an increase in blood flow that follows a temporary disruption of blood flow in known as reactive __

hyperemia

tissue damage can trigger local release of histamine, which can

stimulate release of nitric oxide, a vasodilator

to prevent excessive blood loss following tissue damage, local chemicals such as

thromboxanes are released to trigger vasoconstriction

what statement accurately describes total blood flow

total blood flow equal cardiac output and can vary significantly over time with activity levels

the driving force propelling blood through the circulatory system is the difference in blood pressure from the beginning of a blood vessel to its end. this difference is known as the blood pressure

gradient

blood pressure is lowest in

veins

systolic blood pressure is recorded

in arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction

the force per unit area that blood places on the inside wall of a blood vessel

is called the blood pressure

if someone's blood pressure were listed as 125/75 mmHg, then their pulse pressure would be

50 mmHg

if someone's blood pressure were listed as 110/65 mmHg, then their mean arterial pressure would be

80 mmHg

TOF. the contraction of skeletal muscles plays an important role in the movement of blood in the veins

true

the respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of the trunk, because as a person inspires

intra-abdominal pressure increases and intrathoracic pressure decreases

peripheral resistance is

directly related to vessel length and inversely related to vessel radius

imagine someone who drank too much water before running a race. their very watery blood would be

low viscosity and therefore have low resistance

blood flow is

directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to the resistance

TOF. an increase in blood vessel diameter would lead to a decrease in blood flow

false

atherosclerosis involves a

sustained increase in resistance that leads to increases in arterial pressure to maintain adequate blood flow

increased cardiac output __ the blood pressure

increases

the cardiac center of the brainstem includes the

cardioacceleratory center from which sympathetic pathways extend

excitation of the vasomotor center results in

increased sympathetic activity and predominantly more vasoconstriction than vasodilation

the aorta contains specialized sensory nerve endings that respond to stretch of the vessel wall. these pressure sensitive structures are called aortic arch

baroreceptors

imagine a patient who loses a lot of blood and therefore has less stretch of their aorta with each heartbeat. what reflex will result?

baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center increases firing, and cardiac output will exhibit a compensatory increase

high carbon dioxide levels and low pH in blood of the carotid arteries will stimulate

chemoreceptors to activate the vasomotor center

TOF. epinephrine, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone each cause an increase in blood pressure

true

renin converts..

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

angiotensis II causes

vasoconstriction, decrease urine formation, and increased thirst

TOF. increases in angiotensin II levels cause decreases in blood pressure

false

atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates

vasoconstriction, increased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure

aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide have __ effects on blood pressure

opposite

blood velocity is measured in __ and is generally __ related to total cross sectional area of blood vessels

cm/second, inversely

the velocity of blood flow through capillaries is

slow, which allows sufficient time for exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues

during exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. what other blood flow changes occur

blood flow to coronary vessels increases, and flow to abdominal organs decreases

the pulmonary trunk carries

oxygenated blood from the left ventricle and toward the lungs

TOF. pulmonary veins carry blood toward the left atrium of the heart

true

pulmonary arteries are shorter and wider than systemic arteries. accordingly, pulmonary circuit blood pressure is

low and blood flows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange

the artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the

brachiocephalic artery

the end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the

common iliac arteries

the artery pair that supplies the lower limbs are the

external iliac arteries

branch of the external carotid that is responsible for supplying the teeth, gums, nasal cavity, and meninges is the __ artery

maxillary

the artery that will eventually subdivide to form the posterior cerebral arteries is the __ artery

basilar

the anterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle connects the

anterior cerebral arteries

the brachiocephalic veins are formed by the

internal jugular veins subclavian veins

the internal thoracic artery will become the __, which carries blood to the superior abdominal wall.

superior epigastric artery

most of the venous blood of the cranium drains through large vessels known as the __ venous sinuses

dural

at the bifurcation of the aorta in the pelvic region, the __ artery arises to supply the sacrum and coccyx

median sacral

the superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the __ veins

brachiocephalic

several esophageal branches emerge off of which of the vessels

superior mesenteric artery

TOF. the azygos vein is located on the left side of the vertebrae

false

the azygos vein merges with the __ vena cava

superior

superior phrenic arteries supply the __ and emerge from the __

diaphragm; descending thoracic aorta

what branches arise directly from the celiac trunk

left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

the artery that arises from the descending aorta and is immediately inferior to the celiac trunk is the __ artery

superior mesenteric

the inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the

transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

what carries blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava

hepatic veins

the hepatic portal system allows for the processing of

nutrients and toxins absorbed from the gastrointestinal system into the blood

the left renal vein, right renal vein, right suprarenal vein, and right gonadal vein merge directly into the

inferior vena cava

what sequence indicates the correct pathway for blood in the arterial flow of the upper appendage

subclavian artery axillary artery brachial artery ulnar artery

the arteries that anastomose and form the two arterial arches in the palm are the __ and __ arteries

radial ulnar

the __ runs adjacent to the medial surface of the upper limb and eventually helps form the axillary vein

basilic vein

the radial and ulnar veins fuse to form __ veins; all of these veins are __ veins

brachial deep

the popliteal artery supplies the

knee joint

what path of arteries would a blood cell follow on its way from the thigh to the foot

femoral popliteal anterior tibial dorsalis pedis

the femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein when it

passes above the inguinal ligament

TOF. the great saphenous vein is a deep vein and the popliteal vein is a superficial vein

false

the umbilical cord contains __ umbilical veins and __ umbilical arteries

one two

what fetal circulatory structure shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

ductus arteriosus

what causes much of the blood in the fetal right atrium to the shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale

the blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium

after birth, the remnant of the umbilical vein becomes the

ligamentum teres

umbilical arteries carry __ blood

deoxygenated

what causes closure of the foramen oval at birth

higher pressure in the left atrium, which causes interatrial septum flaps to close

TOF. of the three artery types, the elastic arteries have the greatest ability to vasoconstrictor and vasodilate

false

TOF. systolic pressure is greater than diastolic pressure due to the force generated by ventricular contraction

true

TOF. among the advantages of the cerebral arterial circle is the presence of collateral channels of blood flow to the brain should a supply artery become blocked

true

TOF. the stomach needs the celiac artery blood supply in order to receive blood

true

TOF. the liver receives oxygenated blood from the common hepatic artery and deoxygenated blood from the hepatic portal vein

true

TOF. the left suprarenal and gonadal veins differ from the right suprarenal and gonadal veins in how directly they get to the inferior vena cava

true

TOF. branches of the subclavian arteries carry blood on the way to the brain, neck and shoulder muscles, and mammary glands

true

because of their role in material exchanges, the __ are considered to be the functional units of the cardiovascular system

capillaries

the cyclical process of contracting and relaxing of the pre capillary sphincters is called __

vasomotion

__ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell

fenestrated

formed primarily of tunica intima and strengthened by elastic and collagen fibers, the __ in veins prevent blood from pooling

valves

the hepatic __ system is a venous network that drains the GI tract and delivers blood to the liver

portal

__ arteries emerge from the superficial and deep palmar arches to supply the fingers

digital

as the popliteal vein travels up the leg, it curves to the anterior portion of the thigh and is renamed the __ vein

femoral

the __ vein runs alongside the lateral aspect of the upper limb and eventually drains the axillary vein

cephalic

in the fetus, the blood from the umbilical vein is shunted away from the liver and sent to the inferior vena cava through the ductus __

venosus

what fluid does lymph most closely resemble

interstitial fluid

TOF. lymph contains some protein

true

TOF. lymph contains several red blood cells

false

migration of cancerous cells through the lymphatic system to other regions of the body is called __

metastasis

TOF. the central nervous system contains a dense network of lymphatic capillaries

false

lymphatic capillaries

originate as closed ended tubes associated with blood capillary networks

lymphatic capillaries originate in the

tissue spaces between cells

a lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a

lacteal

the force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is

hydrostatic pressure in the interstitial space

the path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through

spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one way flaps

structures that connect lymphatic capillary cells to surrounding tissue and prevent the capillaries from collapsing are called __ filaments

anchoring

the lymphatic systems two main functions are to assist in

immunity and fluid balance

lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. what is the correct order of these, from smallest to largest in diameter

capillaries vessels trunks ducts

lymphatic capillaries lack

a basement membrane

because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima, media, externa) and valves, they structurally resemble

veins

TOF. like veins, lymphatic vessels rely on skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps to help propel fluid through them

true

fluid collected in lacteals will be carried in __ trunks

intestinal

TOF. walls of the smallest lymphatic vessels contain muscle tissue that rhythmically propels lymph through the system

false

TOF. the pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph

true

of the lymphatic trunks, what drains lymph from deep thoracic structures

bronchomediastinal trunks

Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the __ trunks

jugular

subclavian trunks drain lymph from the

upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax

which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli

intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks

what is not drained by the right lymphatic duct

right side of the abdomen

the thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except

right arm

the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the

subclavian veins

what would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the blood stream

right lumbar trunk cisterna chyli thoracic duct left subclavian vein

TOF. the spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure

false

although they are not a cite of lymphocyte formation, __ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated

secondary

the term "primary lymphatic structure" applies

to the red bone marrow and thymus

TOF. tonsils are secondary lymphatic structures

true

red marrow is found within

spaces within spongy bone

TOF. the ossa coxae contain red marrow

true

what does not contain red marrow

long bones of digits

where do T lymphocytes mature

thymus gland

the letter "t" within "t-lymphocytes" stands for the

thymus or thymus gland

B lymphocytes are

white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow

what part of a thymic lobule contains mature lymphocytes

medulla

the thymus contains __ lobes and is located __

2 mediastinum

the thymus is at its maximum size

at puberty

fibrous extensions of the connective tissue capsule that surround thymic lobes are known as septa or __

trabeculae

the thymus contains lymphatic cells as well as secretory __ tissue

epithelial

lymphatic organs

contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue

MALT is found in which layer of the wall of a hollow organ

lamina propria

with respect to the lymphatic system, what do letters in the acronym MALT stand for

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

what area does not contain MALT

urinary tract respiratory tract genital tract gastrointestinal tract NO EXCEPTIONS

regions of MALT called Peer patches are found in the

small intestine

another name for a lymphatic follicle is a

lymphatic nodule

lymphatic nodules consist of

lymphatic cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule

TOF. the appendix contains lymphatic nodules

true

tonsils have multiple invaginated outer edges called __ that help trap material

crypts

what are not tonsils

palatoglossal tonsils

the main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are

ingested or inhaled

the pharyngeal tonsils are located

in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx

lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. what cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck

cervical lymph nodes

what is not correct regarding lymph nodes

they are drained by afferent lymphatic vessels & connective tissue bands called tendineae divide nodes

lymph nodes

filter lymph

when women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. why

the axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells

typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains

one efferent lymphatic vessel

TOF. the cortex of a lymph node contains multiple lymphatic nodules

true

the term "swollen glands" is usually meant to refer to lymph nodes in which

lymphocytes are proliferating in germinal centers

what lymphatic organ contains red pulp and white pulp

spleen

what is not a function of the spleen

filters lymph

TOF. one of the functions of the spleen is phagocytosis of bacteria in the blood

true

in which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located

left upper quadrant

the hilum of the spleen is part of its

concave anteromedial border

what is not correct regarding the spleen

it has an outer cortex and inner medulla

within the red pulp of the spleen are enlarged capillaries called __, which have a discontinuous basal lamina that allows blood cells to enter and exit easily

splenic sinusoids

what is not correct regarding the white pulp of the spleen

it serves as a blood reservoir

TOF. one of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat

true

TOF. the walls of the lymphatic capillaries are only one cell thick

true

TOF. the germinal center of a lymphatic nodule contains proliferating B lymphocytes and macrophages

true

TOF. the thymus gland begins to atrophy immediately after birth

false

TOF. the spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, since it is encapsulated, has trabecular, and filters lymph to remove antigens

false

obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues. this condition is characterized by pain and swelling, and is called

lymphedema

a lymph nodule contains a germinal center surrounded by a region containing T lymphocytes, dendrititc cells, and macrophages; this outer region is known as a _ zone

mantle

old or defective erythrocytes and platelets are engulfed within the lymph organ known as the __

spleen

TOF. all of the heart's sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium

...

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What term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?

transportation

what term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies

protection

TRUE OR FALSE. blood helps regulate the pH and the temperature of the body

true

oxygen poor blood is _ in color

dark red

the temperature of blood is about _ than measured body temperature

1 C higher

the viscosity of blood is _ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and _ proportional to the amount of fluid

directly indirectly

blood plasma is slightly _; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of _

basic proteins

typically, an adults body contains _ of blood

5 liters

blood is correctly classified as a(n)

tissue

the "buffy" coat of the middle layer of a centrifuged blood sample is composed of

platelets and leukocytes

when blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the

erythrocytes

plasma makes up about _ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood

55

the percentage of the volume of all formed elements in the blood is called the

hematocrit

the clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of

erythrocytes in the blood

a comparison of the clinical hematocrit and true hematocrit would indicate that

their values are very similar

if a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his/her blood would likely

decrease

the most numerous of the formed elements, by far, are the

erythrocytes

TRUE OR FALSE. platelets are formed elements

true

leukocytes are the _ of the formed elements, and leukocytes have _

largest prominent nuclei

a malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. as a result, colloid osmotic pressure

decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space

what most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight

92%

one of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. if too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will

decrease

the smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the

albumins

the globulins make up about _ percent of all plasma proteins

37

an individual’s hematocrit would vary with

age sex altitude (all of the above)

beta globulins transport _, whereas gamma globulins are _

iron ions antibodies

sodium, calcium, and bicarbonate are all described as plasma

electrolytes

glucose is a

polar molecule, and therefore is dissolves readily in plasma

TRUE OR FALSE. iron, lactic acid, and lipids are all considered to be nutrients in blood plasma

true

one of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to

increase the viscosity of the blood

the reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a "formed element" rather than "cell" is that erythrocytes

lack a nucleus and organelles

the hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to

both oxygen and carbon dioxide

the production of leukocytes is called

leukopoiesis

TRUE OR FALSE. natural killer cells derive from T-tymphoblasts and monocytes derive from the granulocyte line

false

production of platelets is called

thrombopoiesis

extensions from megakaryocytic that extend through blood vessel walls in red marrow are sliced from the cells by the force of blood flow. these extensions are

proplatelets

platelets are continually produced in the red bone marrow by cells called

megakaryocytes

_ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytic in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets

thrombopoietin

TRUE OR FALSE. during hemopoiesis, the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only

true

process of producing the formed elements of blood is called

hemopoiesis

what depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoisis

myeloid stem cell proerythroblast erythroblast normoblast reticulocyte mature erythrocyte

the process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called

hemocytoblasts

TRUE OR FALSE. a reticulocyte is a cell formed during erythropoiesis that has lost its nucleus and all organelles except some ribosomes

true

in hemopoiesis, granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _ line

myeloid

TRUE OR FALSE. most colony stimulating factors are growth factors

true

macrophage colony stimulating factor stimulates the production of

monocytes from monoblasts

how many globins are found in a single hemoglobin molecule

4

how many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin

4

the carbon dioxide molecules that bind to the hemoglobin molecule are attached to the _ units

globin

the life span of an erythrocyte is about _ days

120

congenital hemolytic anemia is

when destruction of erythrocytes is more rapid than normal

old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the

liver and spleen

what events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes

heme group is converted into biliverdin iron ions in hemoglobin are removed iron ions are stored in liver membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused

what are characteristics of type O blood

has anti A antibodies has anti B antibodies has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes

what are characteristics of type A blood

has anti B antibodies has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes will agglutinate with blood type B

what are characteristics of type Rh negative blood

only under certain conditions will Rh antibodies be present is inherited independent of the ABO group

if agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate

the wrong blood type was used

the agglutinogens that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are

found on the surface of erythrocytes

what is going to result in significant agglutination

donor is type AB, recipient is type B

the main function of leukocytes is to

defend against pathogens

what are characteristics of leukocytes

have a nucleus have no hemoglobin depending on type, may or may not contain granules

what leukocytes are granulocytes

neutrophils eosinophils basophils

what type of leukocyte releases histamine

basophil

the type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a

neutrophil

t cells are a category of

lymphocytes

the type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a

monocyte

what are the most numerous of the leukocytes

neutrophils

what are the least numerous of the leukocytes

basophils

the test that measures the amount of each type of leukocyte in the blood is a _ count

differential

when trying to diagnose an infection that alters the percentages of leukocytes types found in the blood, it is useful for clinicians to perform a

white blood cell differential count

the growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granuloctyes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is

multi-CSF

what leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

TRUE OR FALSE. platelets are roughly the same size as erythrocytes, and like erythrocytes, they eject their nucleus just before entering circulation

false

platelets play a key role in _, but if they are not used they are broken down after about _ days

hemostasis 9

the first phase in hemostasis is

vascular spasm

the first phase of hemostasis involves

blood vessel constriction

TRUE OR FALSE. vascular spasm is triggered by blood vessel injury and further triggered by the release of serotonin

true

vascular spams last

several minutes when tissue damage is extensive

prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a

platelet repellant

during platelet plug formation, platelets begin to stick to

collagen with the assistance of von Willebrand factor

TRUE OR FALSE. for a relatively small injury, a platelet plug is formed within 1 minute

true

as a platelet plug forms at an injury site platelets become activated and their cytoplasm

degranulates as they release chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A2

TRUE OR FALSE. the extrinsic pathway refers to a clotting system that is initiated by chemicals that come from outside the body

false

which clotting pathway involves more steps and take more time

intrinsic pathway

what clotting pathway involves the combining of thromboplastin with factor VII and calcium

extrinsic pathway

what is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting

prothrombin is activated to thrombin

the formation of a web like polymer of fibrin occurs late in the _ pathway

common

when over 10% of the body’s blood has been lost, a survival response occurs involving activation of the _ nervous sytem

sympathetic

to compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous system triggers

vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate

when actinomyosin of platelets contracts and squeezes the serum out of a clot the process is called clot _

retraction

fibrinolysis involves _ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein _

destruction plasmin

in fetal development, hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red bone marrow at approx

10 weeks

TRUE OR FALSE. compared to young adults, older individuals have relatively less red bone marrow

true

in young children, hemopoiesis occurs in most of their bones, but in adulthood it primarily occurs in

flat bones of the axial skeleton

in many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be

decreased in number and less efficient

TRUE OR FALSE. when viewing a centrifuged blood sample, the erythrocytes will be on the top

false

TRUE OR FALSE. simply put, antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens

true

TOF. the antigen antibody reaction is an example of the regulation function of blood

false

TOF. erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves

true

TOF. the blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive

false

TOF. the ABO and Rh blood types are inherited independently of each other

true

TOF. macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria, cell fragments, dead cells, and debris

true

TOF. the GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells

true

TOF. M-CSF is a growth factor that stimulates the production of monocytes from myeloblast cells

false

when the proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is called _

serum

fibrin, which is produced from the plasma protein _, helps form blood clots

fibrinogen

when a finger is pricked, the blood will stop flowing shortly because of the action of the formed elements called _

platelets

a _ is the name for the cylinder shape that erythrocytes form as they line up in single file for passage through the smallest blood vessels

roueau

the molecule to which both oxygen and carbon dioxide can attach in an erythrocyte is called _

hemoglobin

two of the four glob in chains in the hemoglobin molecule are called alpha chains and the other two are called _ chains

beta

the iron of the heme unit of hemoglobin is transported in the blood by the protein _ after the aged erythrocytes are phagocytized

transferrin

the iron that has been transferred to the liver after the aged erythrocytes were phagocytized is stored by the protein _

ferritin

aged erythrocytes are phagocytized in the liver and spleen by cells called _

macrophages

the heme group form the phagocytized erythrocyte is converted into a green pigment called _

biliverdin

a person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not surface antigen B, is said to have type _ blood

A

the rupture of erythrocytes is called _

hemolysis

surface antigens found on erythrocytes are also called _ based on the response initiated when they interact with antibodies

agglutinogens

the binding of antibodies in the blood plasma to their corresponding surface antigens on the erythrocyte plasma membrane is called _

agglutination

a reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called

leukopenia

movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called

diapedesis

_ is the attraction of leukocytes to a site of infection due to the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens

chemotaxis

_ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in the blood

neutrophils

making up two to four percent of the leukocytes, the _ increase in number when they react to or phagocytize antigen antibody complexes or allergens

eosinophils

among the three categories of lymphocytes, it is the _ killer cells that attack abnormal and infected tissue cells

natural

an abnormally small number of platelets in circulating blood is termed

thrombocytopenia

erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the _ to increase the rate of production and maturation of erythrocyte progenitor and erythroblast cells

kidney

TOF. the main function of the cardiovascular system are the transport and exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body

true

the units for perfusion of blood are typically

millimeters per minute per gram

occlusion of blood vessels tend to lead to

inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues

what can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body

there is a unidirectional blood flow arteries carry blood away from the heart veins carry blood toward the heart

the pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. the pulmonary trunk is an

artery

TOF. arteries carry blood toward the heart, while veins carry blood away from the heart

false

TOF. the receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and the forcefully pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles

true

what analogy fits the human heart

it is like a double pump, each working side by side with the other

what carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

pulmonary veins

what circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic region

systemic circuit

which of the cardiovascular systems circuit has deoxygenated blood in its arteries?

pulmonary circuit

the left ventricle and aorta are part of which circuit of the cardiovascular system

systemic circuit

what heart chambers would contain deoxygenated blood

right atrium and right ventricle

the inferior, conical end of the heart is called the

apex

what pair is located more anteriorly in a heart in normal position

right atrium and right ventricle

the base of the heart faces in the _ directions

posterior and superior

what correctly describes the heart’s apex

projects slightly anterinferiorly toward the left side of the body

the epicardium is another name for the

visceral layer of the serous pericardium

the serous fluid within the pericardium cavity works to

lubricate membranes of the pericardium

the pericardial cavity is between the

visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium

what layer is made of dense irregular connective tissue

fibrous pericardium

TOF. the pericardium helps prevent overfilling of the heart and it lessens the friction of movements during heartbeats

true

the atria are separated from the ventricles externally by the

coronary sulcus

the posterior inter ventricular sulcus

is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart

each of the receiving chambers of the heart has a wrinkled flaplike extension, the one that is more visible from an anterior view is the

right auricle

from which view is the connection between the pulmonary veins and the heart most visible

posterior view

layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the

myocardium

what describes the endocardium

has single layer of epithelium has layer of areolar connective tissue epithelial cells are squamous

deep to the interventricular sulci is the thick muscular wall that divides the left and right ventricles, known as the interventricular

septum

the fossa ovals appears just above the opening of the coronary sinus within the

right atrium

the papillary muscles attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves by means of the

chordae tendineae

the internal wall of surface of each ventricle displays large, smooth, irregular muscular ridges called

trabeculae carneae

pectinate muscles are found on the

internal walls of the right and left atria

what are the functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart

separates the atria and ventricles anchors the heart valves provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium

what feature permits the compression necessary to pump large volumes of blood out of the ventricles

arrangement of cardiac muscle in the heart wall

what are the differences between the cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle in less extensive cardiac muscle has intercalated discs; skeletal muscle does not cardiac muscle has 1 or 2 nuclei per cell; skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell

what are the cell to cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers called

intercalated discs

TOF. myofibrils within cardiac muscle cells are aligned in sarcomeres

true

the metabolic pathways of cardiac muscle make it

somewhat susceptible to heart attack, since it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism

metabolically, cardiac muscle relies on

aerobic metabolism using many mitochondria and a rich supply of myoglobin

TOF. cardiac muscle is able to use a variety of fuel types for cellular respiration

true

the heart valves

permit the passage of blood in one direction

what action leads to the closure of the right atrioventricular valve

contraction of the right ventricle

how many half moon shaped, pocket like cusps are found in each semilunar valve

3

what valves prevents the back flow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax

aortic semilunar valve

as blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart, it

pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them

typically, there are _ papillary muscles that project from the wall of the left ventricle and attach to the chordae tendineae that supports the left AV valve

two

TOF. nodal cells contain fast voltage gated calcium channels

true

TOF. the hearts nodal cells have a more negative resting potential that neurons do, because nodal cells lack leak channels for sodium and potassium ions

false

an auto rhythmic heart cell is one in which

action potentials fire spontaneously

TOF. SA nodal cells are autorhythmic

true

once an SA nodal cells reaches threshold, the depolarization phase occurs during which

calcium comes in through fast voltage gated channels

for the repolarization phase of an SA nodal cell action potential

calcium channels close and potassium channels open

vagal tone refers to the

decreasing of the heart rate below its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation

what is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle

SA node through the atria AV node AV bundle bundle branches purkinje fibers through the atria

at the AV node of the conduction system, the action potential is

delayed due to the cells being small and having few gap junctions

the membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains

fast voltage gated sodium channels and slow voltage gated calcium channels & calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell

during the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell’s action potential, the membrane stays

depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters

as with action potentials in other types of cells, the repolarization of cardiac muscle cells involves the

exit of potassium through voltage gates channels

most of the calcium that triggers contraction of cardiac muscle comes

from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell

to initiate a cardiac muscle cell contraction, calcium

binds to troponin

the time that starts when a muscle cell is depolarized and ends when it is able to be restimulated is the _ period

refractory

TOF. like skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells have an absolute refractory period prior to repolarization

True

which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period

cardiac muscle cell

the plateau phase of an action potential

allows cardiac muscle cells to contract and then relax without locking up

what part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava

SA node

the atrioventricular node is located in the

floor of the right atrium

in an ECG, what does the T wave denote

repolarization of the ventricles

in an EKG, the P wave is generated when the

atria depolarize

what segment of the ECG reflects the plateau phase of ventricular muscle cells action potentials

S-T segment

someone with a heart block would have

a long P-R interval

someone with tachyarrhythmia would be expected to show an abnormally

small Q-T interval

during the S-T segment, what is occurring within cardiac muscle cells

calcium is entering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells

during a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time

2

during ventricular systole

the semilunar valves open and the AV valves close

the opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by

pressure changes of alternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle

blood moves into and then out of a heart chamber because

it moves along its pressure gradient, and that gradient depends on contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle

atrial systole occurs just before

early ventricular systole

the period of time when ventricles begin to contract is early ventricular

systole

just prior to atrial systole

all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are open

TOF. immediately prior to atrial systole, blood continues to enter the atria from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins

true

the shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase

early ventricular diastole

cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped

by a single ventricle in one minute

cardiac output is usually expressed in

liters per minute

cardiac output equals the

heart rate multiplied by stroke volume

cardiac reserve is

the increase in cardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorous exercise

TOF. cardiac reserve is greater in a nonatheletic individual than in a highly trained athelete

false

a chemical that alters heart rate is known as an _ agent

chronotropic

large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. such a stimulant is a

positive chronotropic agent

norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent since it causes

an increase in the firing rate of SA node cells

what is not one of the three main factors influencing stroke volume

chronotropic agents

according to the Frank Starling law

as the volume of blood entering the heart increases, ventricular contractions become more forceful

resistance in arteries to the ejection of blood by the heart is known as

afterload

TOF. preload is the stretch of the heart wall as determined by the amount of blood returned by the veins

true

a drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of cross bridges formed during the hearts contractions would be a

negative inotropic agent

what would cause a decrease in cardiac output

an increase in afterload

parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via

CN X

sympathetic innervation of the heart arises from the _ segments of the spinal cord

T1-T5

TOF. parasympathetic innervation influences the heart rate, but generally tends to have no direct effect on the force of contractions

true

sympathetic innervation of the heart

increases the heart rate increases the force of contractions

the right border of the heart is supplied by the

right marginal artery

this artery is sometimes referred to as the "widow maker" because blockage of it often leads to fatal heart attack. it serves the front of the heart and is more formally called the _ _ artery

anterior interventricular OR left anterior descending

the left and right coronary arteries

are functional end arteries since the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies

what would you expect a cardiologist to recommend if there was substantial occlusion to a patient’s left coronary artery but not the right coronary artery

since this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate, the cardiologist would treat the condition

the posterior interventricular artery is a branch off of the

right coronary artery

coronary vessels are open when the heart is

relaxed

TOF. blood flow to the heart wall courses through coronary vessels in a steady stream

false

the great cardiac vein runs alongside the

anterior interventricular artery

the function of the coronary sinus is to

take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium

which vein drains the posterior aspect of the ventricles of the heart

middle cardiac vein

what prenatal structure forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

truncus arteriosus

the foramen ovale of the fetal heart is an opening in the

interatrial septum

the tetralogy of Fallot refers to

developmental disorder that is a cardiac septal defect

TOF. all of the heart’s sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium

true

TOF. the left ventricle walls are typically thicker than the right ventricular wall

true

TOF. it is the contraction of the atria during atrial systole that completes the filling of the ventricles while the ventricles are in diastole

true

TOF. about 70% of the ventricle filling is achieved passively without the contraction of the atria

true

TOF. during ventricular contraction the semilunar valves close in order to permit the blood to enter the large arterial trunks that carry blood away from the heart

false

TOF. though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat, it can increase or decrease the heart rate

true

TOF. the purkinje fibers are small fibers within the atria that conduct impulses rapidly

false

the middle layer of the heart wall that is made of cardiac muscle tissue is the __

myocardium

the numerous __ within the intercalated discs prevent cardiac muscle fibers from pulling apart

desmosomes

the anterior part of each atrium is a flaplike extension called an __

auricle

the inferior chambers of the heart are called

ventricles

the property that allows the heart to initiate each heartbeat itself is called

autorhythmicity

the heartbeat is initiated by the cells of the __ node

sinoatrial OR SA

__ innervation increases the rate and the force of heart contraction

sympathetic

the connections shared by arteries that allow them to shunt blood from one artery to another are called __

anastomoses

the __ cardiac vein travels alongside the right marginal artery

small

most coronary blood blow occurs during ventricular __

diastole

the term used to describe the inadequate blood flow to a structure causes by obstruction of the blood supply is __

ischemia

the __ is composed of circulatory arranged layers of smooth muscle cells

tunica media

a network of small arteries called the __ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels

vasa vasorum

in arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the

tunica media

the __ is composed on an endothelium and a sub endothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue

tunica intima

gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur between the __ and the tissues of the body

capillaries

as an arterial pathway moves farther from the heart, the arteries

get smaller

as a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins

get larger

what are found in the capillary wall

endothelium intercellular clefts basement membrane

in general, as an artery’s diameter decreases, the artery walls show

an increase in the relative amount of smooth muscle and a decrease in the relative amount of elastic fibers

the largest arteries of the body are classified as

elastic arteries

what are the artery types containing the internal and external elastic laminae

muscular arteries

the function of the postcapillary venule is to

drain the capillary bed

precapillary sphincters will

control blood flow into the true capillaries cause blood to flow directly from the met arteriole into the post capillary venule open when the tissue needs nutrients close when the tissues needs have been met (all answers correct)

sinusoids are found in

bone marrow spleen liver

what is the most common type of capillary

continuous

a venule becomes a vein when its diameter is greater than __ micrometers

100

valves in veins

cause venous blood flow to go in only one direction

what part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood

systemic veins

when physical exertion has ended and the body is at rest, veins demonstrate

vasodilation so that they function as blood reservoirs

circulation to the spleen demonstrates a

simple pathway, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ

a portal system

is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart

oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of

diffusion from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration

TOF. some large molecules, such as fatty acids, are transported between capillaries and tissues by vesicular transport

true

what statement accurately compares filtration and reabsorption

filtration involves bulk flow of fluid out of the blood, whereas reabsorption is bulk flow back into the blood

TOF. filtration and reabsorption are processes that involve water but not solutes

false

blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to

the proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption

what statement is accurate

filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure

net filtration pressure is equal to the

net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure

as blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure

decreases, as blood hydrostatic pressure decreases

if someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood, then net filtration pressure would

be higher than normal

if someone suffered from hypertension, such that the blood pressure in their capillaries was elevated, then net filtration pressure would be

above normal

TOF. blood hydrostatic pressure in systemic capillaries is greater than interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

true

concerning the exchange between blood and interstitial fluid at systemic capillaries

more fluid is filtered than reabsorbed

considering the bulk flow that occurs at capillary beds, the lymphatic system is needed to

reabsorb excess fluid from the interstitial fluid

TOF. although local blood flow to different organs varies from time to time, the distribution of blood vessels in the various organs of the body is fairly similar

false

TOF. the higher the degree of vascularization is a tissue, the greater the potential for local blood flow

true

tendons and ligaments have

a low degree of vascularization, therefore low perfusion and slow healing

the formation of new blood vessels is a process known as

angiogenesis

if someone were to decrease their food intake and increase aerobic exercise, they might lose adipose tissue and condition their muscles. these changes would also influence their blood vessels, as there would be

regression of blood vessels in adipose and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle

angiogenisis..

allows for an increase in the perfusion of a local tissue

TOF. a vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed

false

at a capillary bed, a vasoconstrictor

stimulates precapillary sphincters and decreases local blood flow

imagine yourself sitting in an awkward position in an uncomfortable chair that is depriving part of your leg from normal blood flow. this deprivation of adequate perfusion will result in what sort of local changes in your leg

build up of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions will cause vasoconstriction

an increase in blood flow that follows a temporary disruption of blood flow in known as reactive __

hyperemia

tissue damage can trigger local release of histamine, which can

stimulate release of nitric oxide, a vasodilator

to prevent excessive blood loss following tissue damage, local chemicals such as

thromboxanes are released to trigger vasoconstriction

what statement accurately describes total blood flow

total blood flow equal cardiac output and can vary significantly over time with activity levels

the driving force propelling blood through the circulatory system is the difference in blood pressure from the beginning of a blood vessel to its end. this difference is known as the blood pressure

gradient

blood pressure is lowest in

veins

systolic blood pressure is recorded

in arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction

the force per unit area that blood places on the inside wall of a blood vessel

is called the blood pressure

if someone’s blood pressure were listed as 125/75 mmHg, then their pulse pressure would be

50 mmHg

if someone’s blood pressure were listed as 110/65 mmHg, then their mean arterial pressure would be

80 mmHg

TOF. the contraction of skeletal muscles plays an important role in the movement of blood in the veins

true

the respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of the trunk, because as a person inspires

intra-abdominal pressure increases and intrathoracic pressure decreases

peripheral resistance is

directly related to vessel length and inversely related to vessel radius

imagine someone who drank too much water before running a race. their very watery blood would be

low viscosity and therefore have low resistance

blood flow is

directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to the resistance

TOF. an increase in blood vessel diameter would lead to a decrease in blood flow

false

atherosclerosis involves a

sustained increase in resistance that leads to increases in arterial pressure to maintain adequate blood flow

increased cardiac output __ the blood pressure

increases

the cardiac center of the brainstem includes the

cardioacceleratory center from which sympathetic pathways extend

excitation of the vasomotor center results in

increased sympathetic activity and predominantly more vasoconstriction than vasodilation

the aorta contains specialized sensory nerve endings that respond to stretch of the vessel wall. these pressure sensitive structures are called aortic arch

baroreceptors

imagine a patient who loses a lot of blood and therefore has less stretch of their aorta with each heartbeat. what reflex will result?

baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center increases firing, and cardiac output will exhibit a compensatory increase

high carbon dioxide levels and low pH in blood of the carotid arteries will stimulate

chemoreceptors to activate the vasomotor center

TOF. epinephrine, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone each cause an increase in blood pressure

true

renin converts..

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

angiotensis II causes

vasoconstriction, decrease urine formation, and increased thirst

TOF. increases in angiotensin II levels cause decreases in blood pressure

false

atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates

vasoconstriction, increased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure

aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide have __ effects on blood pressure

opposite

blood velocity is measured in __ and is generally __ related to total cross sectional area of blood vessels

cm/second, inversely

the velocity of blood flow through capillaries is

slow, which allows sufficient time for exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues

during exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. what other blood flow changes occur

blood flow to coronary vessels increases, and flow to abdominal organs decreases

the pulmonary trunk carries

oxygenated blood from the left ventricle and toward the lungs

TOF. pulmonary veins carry blood toward the left atrium of the heart

true

pulmonary arteries are shorter and wider than systemic arteries. accordingly, pulmonary circuit blood pressure is

low and blood flows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange

the artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the

brachiocephalic artery

the end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the

common iliac arteries

the artery pair that supplies the lower limbs are the

external iliac arteries

branch of the external carotid that is responsible for supplying the teeth, gums, nasal cavity, and meninges is the __ artery

maxillary

the artery that will eventually subdivide to form the posterior cerebral arteries is the __ artery

basilar

the anterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle connects the

anterior cerebral arteries

the brachiocephalic veins are formed by the

internal jugular veins subclavian veins

the internal thoracic artery will become the __, which carries blood to the superior abdominal wall.

superior epigastric artery

most of the venous blood of the cranium drains through large vessels known as the __ venous sinuses

dural

at the bifurcation of the aorta in the pelvic region, the __ artery arises to supply the sacrum and coccyx

median sacral

the superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the __ veins

brachiocephalic

several esophageal branches emerge off of which of the vessels

superior mesenteric artery

TOF. the azygos vein is located on the left side of the vertebrae

false

the azygos vein merges with the __ vena cava

superior

superior phrenic arteries supply the __ and emerge from the __

diaphragm; descending thoracic aorta

what branches arise directly from the celiac trunk

left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

the artery that arises from the descending aorta and is immediately inferior to the celiac trunk is the __ artery

superior mesenteric

the inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the

transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

what carries blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava

hepatic veins

the hepatic portal system allows for the processing of

nutrients and toxins absorbed from the gastrointestinal system into the blood

the left renal vein, right renal vein, right suprarenal vein, and right gonadal vein merge directly into the

inferior vena cava

what sequence indicates the correct pathway for blood in the arterial flow of the upper appendage

subclavian artery axillary artery brachial artery ulnar artery

the arteries that anastomose and form the two arterial arches in the palm are the __ and __ arteries

radial ulnar

the __ runs adjacent to the medial surface of the upper limb and eventually helps form the axillary vein

basilic vein

the radial and ulnar veins fuse to form __ veins; all of these veins are __ veins

brachial deep

the popliteal artery supplies the

knee joint

what path of arteries would a blood cell follow on its way from the thigh to the foot

femoral popliteal anterior tibial dorsalis pedis

the femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein when it

passes above the inguinal ligament

TOF. the great saphenous vein is a deep vein and the popliteal vein is a superficial vein

false

the umbilical cord contains __ umbilical veins and __ umbilical arteries

one two

what fetal circulatory structure shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

ductus arteriosus

what causes much of the blood in the fetal right atrium to the shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale

the blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium

after birth, the remnant of the umbilical vein becomes the

ligamentum teres

umbilical arteries carry __ blood

deoxygenated

what causes closure of the foramen oval at birth

higher pressure in the left atrium, which causes interatrial septum flaps to close

TOF. of the three artery types, the elastic arteries have the greatest ability to vasoconstrictor and vasodilate

false

TOF. systolic pressure is greater than diastolic pressure due to the force generated by ventricular contraction

true

TOF. among the advantages of the cerebral arterial circle is the presence of collateral channels of blood flow to the brain should a supply artery become blocked

true

TOF. the stomach needs the celiac artery blood supply in order to receive blood

true

TOF. the liver receives oxygenated blood from the common hepatic artery and deoxygenated blood from the hepatic portal vein

true

TOF. the left suprarenal and gonadal veins differ from the right suprarenal and gonadal veins in how directly they get to the inferior vena cava

true

TOF. branches of the subclavian arteries carry blood on the way to the brain, neck and shoulder muscles, and mammary glands

true

because of their role in material exchanges, the __ are considered to be the functional units of the cardiovascular system

capillaries

the cyclical process of contracting and relaxing of the pre capillary sphincters is called __

vasomotion

__ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell

fenestrated

formed primarily of tunica intima and strengthened by elastic and collagen fibers, the __ in veins prevent blood from pooling

valves

the hepatic __ system is a venous network that drains the GI tract and delivers blood to the liver

portal

__ arteries emerge from the superficial and deep palmar arches to supply the fingers

digital

as the popliteal vein travels up the leg, it curves to the anterior portion of the thigh and is renamed the __ vein

femoral

the __ vein runs alongside the lateral aspect of the upper limb and eventually drains the axillary vein

cephalic

in the fetus, the blood from the umbilical vein is shunted away from the liver and sent to the inferior vena cava through the ductus __

venosus

what fluid does lymph most closely resemble

interstitial fluid

TOF. lymph contains some protein

true

TOF. lymph contains several red blood cells

false

migration of cancerous cells through the lymphatic system to other regions of the body is called __

metastasis

TOF. the central nervous system contains a dense network of lymphatic capillaries

false

lymphatic capillaries

originate as closed ended tubes associated with blood capillary networks

lymphatic capillaries originate in the

tissue spaces between cells

a lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a

lacteal

the force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is

hydrostatic pressure in the interstitial space

the path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through

spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one way flaps

structures that connect lymphatic capillary cells to surrounding tissue and prevent the capillaries from collapsing are called __ filaments

anchoring

the lymphatic systems two main functions are to assist in

immunity and fluid balance

lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. what is the correct order of these, from smallest to largest in diameter

capillaries vessels trunks ducts

lymphatic capillaries lack

a basement membrane

because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima, media, externa) and valves, they structurally resemble

veins

TOF. like veins, lymphatic vessels rely on skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps to help propel fluid through them

true

fluid collected in lacteals will be carried in __ trunks

intestinal

TOF. walls of the smallest lymphatic vessels contain muscle tissue that rhythmically propels lymph through the system

false

TOF. the pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph

true

of the lymphatic trunks, what drains lymph from deep thoracic structures

bronchomediastinal trunks

Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the __ trunks

jugular

subclavian trunks drain lymph from the

upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax

which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli

intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks

what is not drained by the right lymphatic duct

right side of the abdomen

the thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except

right arm

the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the

subclavian veins

what would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the blood stream

right lumbar trunk cisterna chyli thoracic duct left subclavian vein

TOF. the spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure

false

although they are not a cite of lymphocyte formation, __ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated

secondary

the term "primary lymphatic structure" applies

to the red bone marrow and thymus

TOF. tonsils are secondary lymphatic structures

true

red marrow is found within

spaces within spongy bone

TOF. the ossa coxae contain red marrow

true

what does not contain red marrow

long bones of digits

where do T lymphocytes mature

thymus gland

the letter "t" within "t-lymphocytes" stands for the

thymus or thymus gland

B lymphocytes are

white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow

what part of a thymic lobule contains mature lymphocytes

medulla

the thymus contains __ lobes and is located __

2 mediastinum

the thymus is at its maximum size

at puberty

fibrous extensions of the connective tissue capsule that surround thymic lobes are known as septa or __

trabeculae

the thymus contains lymphatic cells as well as secretory __ tissue

epithelial

lymphatic organs

contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue

MALT is found in which layer of the wall of a hollow organ

lamina propria

with respect to the lymphatic system, what do letters in the acronym MALT stand for

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

what area does not contain MALT

urinary tract respiratory tract genital tract gastrointestinal tract NO EXCEPTIONS

regions of MALT called Peer patches are found in the

small intestine

another name for a lymphatic follicle is a

lymphatic nodule

lymphatic nodules consist of

lymphatic cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule

TOF. the appendix contains lymphatic nodules

true

tonsils have multiple invaginated outer edges called __ that help trap material

crypts

what are not tonsils

palatoglossal tonsils

the main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are

ingested or inhaled

the pharyngeal tonsils are located

in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx

lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. what cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck

cervical lymph nodes

what is not correct regarding lymph nodes

they are drained by afferent lymphatic vessels & connective tissue bands called tendineae divide nodes

lymph nodes

filter lymph

when women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. why

the axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells

typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains

one efferent lymphatic vessel

TOF. the cortex of a lymph node contains multiple lymphatic nodules

true

the term "swollen glands" is usually meant to refer to lymph nodes in which

lymphocytes are proliferating in germinal centers

what lymphatic organ contains red pulp and white pulp

spleen

what is not a function of the spleen

filters lymph

TOF. one of the functions of the spleen is phagocytosis of bacteria in the blood

true

in which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located

left upper quadrant

the hilum of the spleen is part of its

concave anteromedial border

what is not correct regarding the spleen

it has an outer cortex and inner medulla

within the red pulp of the spleen are enlarged capillaries called __, which have a discontinuous basal lamina that allows blood cells to enter and exit easily

splenic sinusoids

what is not correct regarding the white pulp of the spleen

it serves as a blood reservoir

TOF. one of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat

true

TOF. the walls of the lymphatic capillaries are only one cell thick

true

TOF. the germinal center of a lymphatic nodule contains proliferating B lymphocytes and macrophages

true

TOF. the thymus gland begins to atrophy immediately after birth

false

TOF. the spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, since it is encapsulated, has trabecular, and filters lymph to remove antigens

false

obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues. this condition is characterized by pain and swelling, and is called

lymphedema

a lymph nodule contains a germinal center surrounded by a region containing T lymphocytes, dendrititc cells, and macrophages; this outer region is known as a _ zone

mantle

old or defective erythrocytes and platelets are engulfed within the lymph organ known as the __

spleen

TOF. all of the heart’s sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium

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