AP Biology Chapter 23

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Which of these is a statement that Darwin would have rejected?
A) Environmental change plays a role in evolution.
B) The smallest entity that can evolve is an individual organism.
C) Individuals can acquire new characteristics as they respond to new environments or situations.
D) Inherited variation in a population is a necessary precondition for natural selection to operate.
E) Natural populations tend to produce more offspring than the environment can support.

b

Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime?
A) change in gene frequency in gene pools
B) descent with modification
C) the gradual change of a populationʹs heritable traits over generations
D) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations
E) the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time

a

About which of these did Darwin have a poor understanding?
A) that individuals in a population exhibit a good deal of variation
B) that much of the variation between individuals in a population is inherited
C) the factors that cause individuals in populations to struggle for survival
D) the sources of genetic variations among individuals
E) how a beneficial trait becomes more common in a population over the course of generations

d

If, on average, 46% of the loci in a speciesʹ gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the
species should be
A) 23%
B) 46%
C) 54%
D) 92%
E) There is not enough information to say

c

Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that
introduces a brand-new allele into a populationʹs gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed?
A) Average heterozygosity
B) Nucleotide variability
C) Geographic variability
D) Average number of loci

a

Which of these is the smallest unit upon which natural selection directly acts?
A) a speciesʹ gene frequency
B) a populationʹs gene frequency
C) an individualʹs genome
D) an individualʹs genotype
E) an individualʹs phenotype

e

Which of these is the smallest unit that natural selection can change?
A) a speciesʹ gene frequency
B) a populationʹs gene frequency
C) an individualʹs genome
D) an individualʹs genotype
E) an individualʹs phenotype

b

Which of these evolutionary agents is most consistent at causing populations to become better suited to their
environments over the course of generations?
A) Mutation
B) Non-random mating
C) Gene flow
D) Natural selection
E) Genetic drift

d

Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is
true?
A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.
B) Each bird developed a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.
C) Each birdʹs survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought
persisted.
D) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the
previous generation.
E) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted.

c

Each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large
populations, but which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?
A) Mutation
B) Non-random mating
C) Genetic drift
D) Natural selection
E) Gene flow

c

In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Sources of variation for
evolution include all of the following except
A) mistakes in translation of structural genes.
B) mistakes in DNA replication.
C) translocations and mistakes in meiosis.
D) recombination at fertilization.
E) recombination by crossing over in meiosis.

a

A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example
of
A) a cline.
B) a bottleneck.
C) relative fitness.
D) genetic drift.
E) geographic variation.

a

The higher the proportion of loci that are ʺfixedʺ in a population, the lower is that populationʹs
A) nucleotide variability.
B) genetic polyploidy.
C) average heterozygosity.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and C only

e

Which statement about variation is true?
A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines.

d

In a hypothetical populationʹs gene pool, an autosomal gene, which had previously been fixed, undergoes a
mutation that introduces a new allele, one inherited according to incomplete dominance. Natural selection then
causes stabilizing selection at this locus. Consequently, what should happen over the course of many
generations?
A) The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease.
B) The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant.
C) The populationʹs average heterozygosity should increase.
D) Both (A)and (B)
E) Both (A)and (C)

e

Rank the following 1-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of
affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide:
1. insertion mutation deep within an intron
2. substitution mutation at the 3rd position of an exonic codon
3. substitution mutation at the 2nd position of an exonic codon
4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 1, 4

b

Sponges are known to contain a single Hox gene. Most invertebrates have a cluster of 10 similar Hox genes, all
located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four
non-homologous chromosomes. The process responsible for the change in number of Hox genes from sponges
to invertebrates was most likely __________, whereas a different process that could have potentially
contributed to the clusterʹs presence on more than one chromosome was __________.
I. binary fission
II. translation
III. gene duplication
IV. non-disjunction
V. transcription
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) II, V
D) III, IV
E) III, V

d

HIVʹs genome of RNA includes code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a
DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection
by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for
antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act
against PR.
18) Which of these represents the treatment option that is most likely to avoid the production of drug -resistant
HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)?
A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed 1 day
D) using moderate doses of NA and of two different PIʹs at the same time for several months

d

Within the body of an HIV-infected individual who is being treated with a single NA, and whose HIV particles
are currently vulnerable to this NA, which of these situations can increase the virusʹ relative fitness?
1. mutations resulting in RTs with decreased rates of nucleotide mismatch
2. mutations resulting in RTs with increased rates of nucleotide mismatch
3. mutations resulting in RTs that have proofreading capability
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 2 and 3

b

HIV has 9 genes in its RNA genome. Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules, each molecule
containing all 9 genes. If, for some reason, the two RNA molecules within a single HIV particle do not have
identical sequences, then which of these terms can be applied due to the existence of the non-identical regions?
A) homozygous
B) gene variability
C) nucleotide variability
D) average heterozygosity
E) all except A

e

If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other
RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true?
A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle.
B) There are now more genes within the viral particle.
C) A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome.
D) The retroviral equivalent of crossing-over has occurred, no doubt resulting in a heightened positive
effect.
E) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.

e

The DNA polymerases of all cellular organisms have proofreading capability. This capability tends to reduce
the introduction of
A) extra genes by gene duplication events.
B) chromosomal translocation.
C) genetic variation by mutations.
D) proofreading capability into prokaryotes.

c

Which of these makes determining the evolutionary relatedness of different species based on the amino acid
sequence of homologous proteins generally less accurate than determinations of relatedness based on the
nucleotide sequences of homologous genes?
A) Silent mutations
B) Gene duplications
C) Translocation events that change gene sequences
D) Crossing-over
E) Independent assortment

a

Which is a true statement concerning genetic variation?
A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection.
B) It arises in response to changes in the environment.
C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
D) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a larger
average heterozygosity.

c

What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the fact that the frequency of the recessive trait
(aa) has not changed over time?
A) The population is undergoing genetic drift.
B) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions.
C) The genotype AA is lethal.
D) There has been a high rate of mutation of allele A to allele a.
E) There has been sexual selection favoring allele a.

b

What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A) 0.05
B) 0.25
C) 0.50
D) 0.75
E) 1.00

c

What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait?
A) 0.05
B) 0.25
C) 0.50
D) 0.75
E) 1.00

c

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a
is 0.4. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 32
D) 36
E) 40

b

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is
0.1. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele?
A) 90
B) 81
C) 49
D) 18
E) 10

d

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is
0.2. What is the frequency of individuals with Aa genotype?
A) 0.20
B) 0.32
C) 0.42
D) 0.80
E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided.

b

You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should
be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?
A) 0.09
B) 0.30
C) 0.49
D) 0.70
E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

e

What is the frequency of the B allele?
A) 0.001
B) 0.002
C) 0.100
D) 0.400
E) 0.600

e

If there are 4,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have AB blood under the
conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) 100
B) 960
C) 1,920
D) 2,000
E) 2,400

c

In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36
purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the
value of q for this population?
A) 0.36
B) 0.60
C) 0.64
D) 0.75
E) 0.80

e

Which of these is closest to the allele frequency in the founding population?
A) 0.1 a, 0.9 A
B) 0.2 a, 0.8 A
C) 0.5 a, 0.5 A
D) 0.8 a, 0.2 A
E) 0.4 a, 0.6 A

a

If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet, about
how many people will have attached earlobes when the planetʹs population reaches 10,000?
A) 100
B) 400
C) 800
D) 1,000
E) 10,000

a

If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be quite
different in the subsequent generations. This would be an example of
A) diploidy.
B) gene flow.
C) genetic drift.
D) disruptive selection.
E) stabilizing selection.

c

In which population is the frequency of the allele for brown feathers highest?
A) Population A.
B) Population B.
C) Population C.
D) They are all the same.
E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

d

In which population would it be least likely that an accident would significantly alter the frequency of the
brown allele?
A) Population A.
B) Population B.
C) Population C.
D) They are all the same.
E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

b

Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect?
A) Population A.
B) Population B.
C) Population C.
D) They are all the same.
E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

a

You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture
bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased
greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to
reverse this trend is to
A) cross your flies with flies from another lab.
B) reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation.
C) transfer only the largest flies.
D) change the temperature at which you rear the flies.
E) shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy.

a

If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in a small, isolated population of alpine plants decreases
due to a landslide that leaves an even smaller remnant of surviving plants bearing this allele, then what has
occurred?
A) a bottleneck
B) genetic drift
C) microevolution
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

e

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galapagos from South America had already been
genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the
Galapagos, this would have been an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) bottleneck effect.
C) founderʹs effect.
D) all three of these
E) both A and C

e

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human
evolution by increasing
A) non-random mating.
B) geographic isolation.
C) genetic drift.
D) mutations.
E) gene flow.

e

Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between
A) species.
B) males and females.
C) populations.
D) individuals.
E) chromosomes.

c

The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from
A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) evolutionary imbalance.
C) heterozygote advantage.
D) neutral variation.
E) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy.

a

Natural selection is most nearly the same as
A) diploidy.
B) gene flow.
C) genetic drift.
D) non-random mating.
E) differential reproductive success.

e

Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur?
A) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species.
B) Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
C) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
D) Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages,
with ratios that vary over time.
E) Both A and B are correct.

d

Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least inclusive):
1. Natural selection
2. Microevolution
3. Intrasexual selection
4. Evolution
5. Sexual selection
A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

c

Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of
A) pansexual selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) intrasexual selection.
D) intersexual selection.
E) artificial selection.

d

During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the
brightest red feathers. Which of the following is true of this situation?
A) Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males should increase
over the course of generations.
B) Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males should
increase over the course of generations.
C) There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males.
D) All three of these.
E) Only B and C.

d

Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to the situation described in the previous question?
A) Sexual selection
B) Mate choice
C) Intersexual selection
D) All three of these
E) Only B and C

d

The situation as described in the paragraph above should select most directly against males that
A) are unable to distinguish food items that are red from those of other colors.
B) are older, but still healthy.
C) are capable of defending only moderately sized territories.
D) have slightly lower levels of testosterone during breeding season than have other males.
E) have no prior experience courting female house finches.

a

If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females, and
increasing larynx size in adult males, then
A) sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species.
B) intrasexual selection seems to have occurred.
C) the ʺgood genesʺ hypothesis was refuted by these data.
D) stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx size.
E) selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype.

a

Which addition to the information in the paragraph above would make more than one of the answers listed in
the previous question correct?
A) If larynx size was also affected by the amount the larynx was used (i.e., the amount of vocalization).
B) If males prefer to mate with females possessing higher voices.
C) If females killed female offspring whose voices were too deep.
D) If the trend described above was seen in the fossil record of only one species of ape.

c

If one excludes the involvement of gender in the situation described in the paragraph above, then the pattern
that is apparent in the fossil record is most similar to one that should be expected from
A) pansexual selection.
B) directional selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) asexual selection.

c

The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured most directly by
A) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.
B) the number of ʺgood genesʺ it possesses.
C) the number of mates it attracts.
D) its physical strength.
E) how long it lives.

a

When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean
that the organism
A) lives longer than others of its species.
B) competes for resources more successfully than others of its species.
C) mates more frequently than others of its species.
D) utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches.
E) leaves more viable offspring than others of its species.

e

Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today?
A) It is goal-directed.
B) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics.
C) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow.
D) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes.
E) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes.

e

If neutral variation is truly ʺneutral,ʺ then it should have no effect on
A) nucleotide diversity.
B) average heterozygosity.
C) our ability to measure the rate of evolution.
D) relative fitness.
E) gene diversity.

d

Which describes an African butterfly species that exists in two strikingly different color patterns?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

d

Which describes brightly colored peacocks mating more frequently than drab peacocks?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

e

Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have
reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

c

Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the
following terms best describes this?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

b

The average birth weight for human babies is about 3 kg. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

c

A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate individuals are
relatively rare. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

d

Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) A and B
E) A and C

d

The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infantʹs diet lacks the amino
acid, phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a populationʹs gene pool?
A) heterozygote advantage
B) stabilizing selection
C) diploidy
D) balancing selection

c

Mules are relatively long-lived and hardy organisms that cannot, generally speaking, perform successful
meiosis. Consequently, which statement about mules is true?
A) They have a relative evolutionary fitness of zero.
B) Their offspring have less genetic variation than the parents.
C) Mutations cannot occur in their genomes.
D) If crossing-over happens in mules, then it must be limited to prophase of mitosis.
E) When two mules interbreed, genetic recombination cannot occur by meiotic crossing over, but only by the
act of fertilization.

a

Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?
A) sexual selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) random selection
D) directional selection
E) disruptive selection

b

In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds,
respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would
then operate on the finch population?
A) disruptive selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) sexual selection
E) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

b

What is true of the trait whose frequency distribution in a large population appears above? It has probably
undergone
A) directional selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) sexual selection.
E) random selection.

b

If the curve shifts to the left or to the right, there is no gene flow, and the population size consequently
increases over successive generations, then which of these is (are) probably occurring?
1. immigration or emigration
2. directional selection
3. adaptation
4. genetic drift
5. disruptive selection
A) 1 only
B) 4 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 4 and 5
E) 1, 2, and 3

c

Male satin bowerbirds adorn structures that they build, called ʺbowers,ʺ with parrot feathers, flowers, and
other bizarre ornaments in order to attract females. Females inspect the bowers and, if suitably impressed,
allow males to mate with them. The evolution of this male behavior is due to
A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) artificial selection.
C) sexual selection.
D) natural selection.
E) disruptive selection.

c

When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the
members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the
offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of
A) sexual selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) balancing selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) frequency-dependent selection.

e

The same gene that causes various coat patterns in wild and domesticated cats also causes the cross -eyed
condition in these cats, the cross-eyed condition being slightly maladaptive. In a hypothetical environment, the
coat pattern that is associated with crossed eyes is highly adaptive, with the result that both the coat pattern
and the cross-eyed condition increase in a feline population over time. Which statement is supported by these
observations?
A) Evolution is progressive and tends toward a more perfect population.
B) Phenotype is often the result of compromise.
C) Natural selection reduces the frequency of maladaptive genes in populations over the course of time.
D) Polygenic inheritance is generally maladaptive, and should become less common in future generations.
E) In all environments, coat pattern is a more important survival factor than is eye-muscle tone.

b

A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found
in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. That the actual forelimbs of these
mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged is because
A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given
enough time.
B) natural selection operates in ways that are beyond the capability of the human mind to comprehend.
C) in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well.
D) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions
excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design.
E) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations
and in previous species.

e

There are those who claim that the theory of evolution cannot be true because the apes, which are supposed to
be closely related to humans, do not likewise share the same large brains, capacity for complicated speech, and
tool-making capability. They reason that if these features are generally beneficial, then the apes should have
evolved them as well. Which of these provides the best argument against this misconception?
A) Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand.
B) A populationʹs evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C) Adaptations are often compromises.
D) Evolution can be influenced by environmental change.

a

A fruit fly population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. Tests show that 70% of the gametes produced in
the population contain the A1 allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of
the flies carry both A1 and A2?
A) 0.7
B) 0.49
C) 0.21
D) 0.42
E) 0.09

d

There are 40 individuals in population 1, all of which have genotype A1A1, and there are 25 individuals in
population 2, all of genotype A2A2. Assume that these populations are located far from one another and that
their environmental conditions are very similar. Based on the information given here, the observed genetic
variation is mostly likely an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) gene flow.
C) disruptive selection.
D) discrete variation.
E) directional selection.

a

Natural selection changes allele frequencies in populations because some __________ survive and reproduce
more successfully than others.
A) alleles
B) loci
C) gene pools
D) species
E) individuals

e

No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The chief cause of genetic variation among
human individuals is
A) new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation.
B) the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction.
C) genetic drift due to the small size of the population.
D) geographic variation within the population.
E) environmental effects.

b

Sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with longer or shorter wings,
illustrating
A) the bottleneck effect.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) frequency-dependent selection.
D) neutral variation.
E) disruptive selection.

b

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