|
A) C |
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) C |
|
A) C |
9) B 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) D |
|
A) Depolarization |
14) D 15) A 16) E 17) B 18) C |
|
A) Spatial summation |
19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C |
|
A) Secretory zone |
23) D 24) E 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) E |
|
A) Parallel after-discharge circuit |
29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D |
|
1) Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart’s rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? |
D) parasympathetic division |
|
2) Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? |
A) sensory (afferent) division |
|
3) Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? |
B) somatic nervous system |
|
4) Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? |
A) sensory (afferent) division |
|
5) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? |
B) astrocytes |
|
6) The concentration neurotransmitters in the fluid of the synaptic cleft must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation? |
B) astrocytes |
|
7) Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain? |
B) astrocytes |
|
8) Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? |
C) microglia |
|
9) Like all cells, the neurons’ internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________. |
D) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments |
|
10) An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? |
D) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels. |
|
11) The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation except one. Choose the statement below that is not a consequence of the closing of inactivating gates. |
A) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell. |
|
12) During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________. |
A) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane |
|
3) If a post synaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation this implies that ________. |
D) the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons |
|
14) If a post synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________. |
C) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP |
|
15) When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell? |
C) Chemically gated sodium channels will open. |
|
16) When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the post synaptic cell? |
D) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane |
|
17) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? |
D) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors. |
|
18) Which of the choices below describes the ANS? |
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands |
|
19) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________. |
A) ependymal cells |
|
20) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? |
D) frequency of action potentials |
|
21) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. |
C) found in the retina of the eye |
|
22) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? |
D) acetylcholine |
|
23) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? |
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions |
|
24) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________. |
C) absolute refractory period |
|
25) Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons? |
D) They are mitotic. |
|
26) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? |
A) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft |
|
27) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? |
B) innervation of skeletal muscle |
|
28) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. |
A) ganglia |
|
29) The term central nervous system refers to the ________. |
A) brain and spinal cord |
|
30) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. |
D) the myelin sheath |
|
31) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters? |
B) nucleic acid |
|
32) Which of the following is false or incorrect? |
C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. |
|
33) Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses. |
A) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell. |
|
34) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? |
B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes |
|
35) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. |
D) oligodendrocytes |
|
36) Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? |
C) voltage gated potassium channels |
|
37) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. |
C) hyperpolarization |
|
38) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane? |
B) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium. |
|
39) When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________. |
D) generator potential |
|
40) Which of the following is not true of graded potentials? |
A) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point. |
|
41) Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes? |
B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes. |
|
42) A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________. |
B) the membrane potential has been reestablished |
|
43) The interior surface of a neuron’s plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________. |
D) negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell |
|
44) If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________. |
B) the impulse would spread bidirectionally |
|
45) Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? |
C) short distance depolarization |
|
1) That part of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system. |
somatic |
|
2) Neuroglia found in the CNS that change the permeability of capillaries in the brain by binding to and surrounding these blood vessels are called ________. |
astrocytes |
|
3) A chemical messenger that does not directly cause ESPSs or IPSPs but does affect the strength of synaptic transmission is a ________. |
neuromodulator |
|
4) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the ________. |
electrical synapse |
|
5) When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway, the process is called ________ processing. |
parallel |
|
6) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation. |
temporal |
|
A) C |
1) C 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) B |
|
A) A |
6) E 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D |
|
A) D |
11) C 12) D 13) E 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) E |
|
A) Insula |
18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) A 25) C |
|
A) Primary (somatic) motor cortex |
26) C 27) D 28) A 29) B |
|
A) NREM stage 2 |
30) D 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B |
|
A) Brain stem |
37) E 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) C |
|
A) Conus medullaris |
42) D 43) C 44) B 45) A |
|
1) Which brain nucleus is the body’s "biological clock"? |
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus |
|
2) The arbor vitae refers to ________. |
C) cerebellar white matter |
|
3) The brain stem consists of the ________. |
A) midbrain, medulla, and pons |
|
4) The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________. |
B) temporal lobe |
|
5) Spinocerebellar tracts ________. |
D) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum |
|
6) What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? |
A) ependymal cells |
|
7) The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? |
D) arachnoid and pia |
|
8) Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. |
B) medulla oblongata |
|
9) Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in ________. |
C) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord |
|
10) Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres? |
D) longitudinal fissure |
|
11) Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? |
B) executive suite |
|
12) A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________. |
D) sulcus |
|
13) Which of the following generalizations does NOT describe the cerebral cortex? |
A) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function. |
|
14) If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________. |
B) spinal cord may be affected |
|
15) The central sulcus separates which lobes? |
A) frontal from parietal |
|
16) Neural tracts that convey information to the brain concerning temperature and pain would be ________. |
B) lateral spinothalamic |
|
17) Which of these would you NOT find in the cerebral cortex? |
A) fiber tracts |
|
18) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________. |
A) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers |
|
19) Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei? |
C) initiating protective reflex actions |
|
20) Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________. |
D) upper motor neurons |
|
21) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________. |
D) gyri |
|
22) The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________. |
C) lateral sulcus |
|
23) Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
D) Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions. |
|
24) Broca’s area ________. |
C) is considered a motor speech area |
|
25) Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality? |
B) prefrontal cortex (anterior association area) |
|
26) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. |
D) metabolic waste such as urea |
|
27) All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________. |
B) caudate nucleus |
|
28) The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________. |
A) association |
|
29) Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano? |
B) procedural |
|
30) The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. |
A) reticular formation |
|
31) Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid? |
A) red blood cells |
|
32) REM sleep is associated with ________. |
B) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm |
|
33) Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF? |
C) initiation of some nerve impulses |
|
34) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. |
A) loss of fine motor control |
|
35) Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________. |
C) vestibular nuclei |
|
36) Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory? |
B) medulla oblongata |
|
37) The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________. |
C) visceral sensory area |
|
38) Which statement about coma is true? |
A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma. |
|
39) Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________. |
A) Parkinson’s disease |
|
40) Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury? |
B) concussion |
|
41) Declarative memory ________. |
A) is the ability to learn specific information |
|
42) Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)? |
B) red nuclei |
|
43) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate? |
A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor. |
|
44) White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________. |
A) cerebral cortex |
|
45) Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. |
C) thalamus |
|
46) Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________. |
A) premotor cortex |
|
47) Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults, but are common for children? |
C) theta |
|
48) Which ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord? |
D) fourth |
|
49) The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________. |
C) corpus callosum |
|
50) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson’s disease. |
C) substantia nigra |
|
51) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland? |
B) infundibulum |
|
52) Arachnoid granulations are knoblike projections that protrude superiorly through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood. |
B) dura |
|
53) Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the ________. |
… |
|
54) Which type of memory is exemplified by a racing heartbeat upon hearing a rattlesnake nearby? |
B) emotional |
|
55) The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. |
A) diencephalon |
|
6) The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________. |
B) pyramids |
|
57) The corpora quadrigemina are found in the ________. |
B) midbrain |
|
58) Which type of wave predominates during stage 4 NREM sleep? |
A) delta |
|
59) The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia. |
D) hippocampus |
|
60) Sleepwalking may occur during ________. |
A) NREM stage 4 |
|
61) Which of the following is a dural septum, described as a large sickle-shaped fold that dips into the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres? |
D) falx cerebri |
|
62) The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the ________. |
C) reticular activating system |
|
A) E |
1) B 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) B |
|
A) E |
7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) C |
|
A) Olfactory 12) Rootlets arise on the spinal cord, enter the skull through the foramen magnum and exit the skull through the jugular foramen. |
12) B 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) C |
|
A) Plantar 17) Tests both upper and lower motor pathways. The sole of the foot is stimulated with a dull instrument. |
17) A 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) D |
|
A) Brachial plexus 22) The obturator and femoral nerves branch from this plexus. |
22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) C |
|
A) Segmental level 27) Controls the outputs of the cortex and regulates motor activity. |
27) C 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) A |
|
A) B 33) Contain autonomic nerve fibers. |
33) C 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A |
|
A) Pacinian corpuscle 38) Lamellar corpuscle. |
38) A 39) B 40) C |
|
1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? |
A) nociceptors |
|
2) Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. This stretch indicates the blood’s pressure. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above? |
D) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors |
|
3) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body’s positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability. |
B) proprioceptors |
|
4) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? |
A) mechanoreceptors |
|
5) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex? |
C) tendon organ |
|
6) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus’ strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? |
C) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus’ strength increases. |
|
7) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? |
D) olfactory nerve (I) |
|
8) A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________. |
D) the right optic tract |
|
9) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient’s eye. She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following? |
D) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III). |
|
10) A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to happen? |
D) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking. |
|
11) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right. Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested? |
B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) |
|
12) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus? |
C) the facial nerve (VII) |
|
13) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. |
C) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury |
|
14) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________. |
B) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra |
|
15) Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. |
C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here |
|
16) Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because ________. |
A) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ |
|
17) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following test might the doctor try on her patient? |
A) Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away. |
|
18) Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus? |
B) phrenic |
|
19) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. |
C) tibial |
|
20) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. |
D) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords |
|
21) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________. |
D) accessory |
|
22) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? |
B) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. |
|
23) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. |
B) femoral |
|
24) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. |
B) sacral plexus |
|
25) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. |
A) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior |
|
26) Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. |
C) ulnar nerve |
|
27) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. |
B) tendon reflex |
|
28) Which receptors adapt most slowly? |
B) pressure receptors |
|
29) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. |
A) afferent nerves |
|
30) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. |
A) Schwann cells |
|
31) Regeneration within the CNS ________. |
A) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes |
|
32) In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________. |
C) extend |
|
33) Select the correct definition. |
B) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face. |
|
34) All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________. |
D) thalamus |
|
35) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? |
D) common fibular and tibial |
|
36) Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome? |
C) median |
|
37) Bell’s palsy is ________. |
A) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles |
|
38) Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? |
A) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector |
|
39) Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following? |
B) olfactory |
|
40) Transduction refers to conversion of ________. |
B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential |
|
41) Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? |
B) vestibulocochlear |
|
42) A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve? |
D) olfactory |
|
43) Select the statement that is most correct. |
A) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. |
|
44) A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________. |
A) sciatica |
|
45) Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________. |
C) Lamellar corpuscles |
|
46) A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged? |
D) facial |
|
47) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? |
D) a complete loss of voluntary movement |
|
A) C 1) Myelin sheath. 2) Cell body of an ANS preganglionic neuron. 3) Cell body of an ANS postganglionic neuron. 4) Cell body of a somatic motor neuron. |
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D |
|
A) Sympathetic 5) Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers. 6) Collateral ganglia. 7) Active after you have eaten a meal. 8) Decreases heart rate. 9) Maintenance functions. 10) Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision. 11) Increases blood pressure. |
5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A |
|
A) Norepinephrine (NE) 12) Secreted by preganglionic sympathetic fibers. 13) Secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. 14) Secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers to sweat glands. 15) Secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. 16) Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers. |
12) B 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) A |
|
1) Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS? |
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells |
|
2) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. |
D) sympathetic division |
|
3) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________. |
C) regulation of activity by higher brain centers |
|
4) Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? |
D) all parasympathetic target organs |
|
5) The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________. |
B) ciliary ganglion |
|
6) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT ________. |
C) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera |
|
7) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerves ________. |
D) X (vagus) |
|
8) The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. |
A) parasympathetic division |
|
9) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. |
C) hypothalamus |
|
10) Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? |
D) skeletal muscle |
|
11) Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation? |
D) dilation of the pupils |
|
12) Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
B) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. |
|
13) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. |
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response |
|
14) Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? |
C) first thoracic |
|
15) Autonomic ganglia contain ________. |
A) the cell bodies of motor neurons |
|
16) The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. |
A) oculomotor (III) |
|
17) Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________. |
B) splanchnic nerves |
|
18) Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve? |
D) inferior hypogastric |
|
19) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. |
D) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons |
|
20) The parasympathetic tone ________. |
D) determines normal activity of the urinary tract |
|
21) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT? |
B) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion |
|
22) Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions? |
A) reticular formation |
|
23) Drugs called beta-blockers ________. |
A) decrease heart rate and blood pressure |
|
24) Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ________. |
C) is primarily under parasympathetic control |
|
25) Which is a uniquely sympathetic function? |
C) regulation of body temperature |
|
26) Raynaud’s disease ________. |
D) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities |
|
27) Autonomic dysreflexia ________. |
D) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons |
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28) Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve? |
B) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia |
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29) Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity? |
B) beta 1 |
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30) Where would you NOT find autonomic ganglia? |
D) within spinal cord |
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31) Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. |
A) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure |
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32) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. |
B) vagus (X) nerves |
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33) Parasympathetic functions include ________. |
C) lens accommodation for close vision |
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34) Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. |
B) hypothalamus |
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35) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________. |
D) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers |
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36) Which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products? |
C) nicotinic agents |
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37) A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT ________. |
B) increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood |
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38) Which of the following is mismatched? |
A) promotes urination; sympathetic |
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39) Which type of drug would be useful in dilating the pupils for an examination of the retina? |
D) muscarinic receptor inhibitor |
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40) Which target organ receives dual innervation? |
A) small intestine |
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41) Which of the following is mismatched? |
C) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE |
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A) B 1) Ganglion cells. 2) Bipolar cells. 3) Horizontal cell. 4) Amacrine cell. 5) Rod. |
1) B 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) A |
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A) D 6) Protects and shapes the eyeball; provides a sturdy anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles. 7) Blood vessels that supply nutrition to most of the eyes’ structures (excluding the lens and cornea). 8) Contains only cones; provides detailed color vision. 9) Lacks photoreceptors; where optic nerve exits the eye. 10) Consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer. |
6) D 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) B |
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A) A 11) Acts as a reflexively activated diaphragm to vary pupil size. 12) The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or no rejection. 13) Controls lens shape. 14) Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer. 15) Fluid blockages cause glaucoma. |
11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) E |
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A) C 16) Auricle. 17) Tympanic membrane. 18) Stapes. 19) Semicircular canals. 20) Cochlea. 21) Balance organ. 22) Houses organ of Corti. |
16) C 17) E 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) D |
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A) Lens 23) The sensory layer of the eye. 24) The structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye. 25) Helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye. 26) Area of greatest visual acuity. |
23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D |
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A) Otoliths 27) Ear stones. 28) Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. 29) Separates external acoustic meatus from the middle ear. 30) Contains utricle and saccule. 31) Detects linear acceleration. |
27) A 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) B |
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A) Conduction deafness 32) A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A. 33) A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis. 34) An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear. 35) A condition often leading to blindness due to increased intraocular pressure. |
32) C 33) A 34) B 35) D |
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A) Macula 36) Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure. 37) Chemically sensitive microvilli found in this structure. 38) Hair cells receptive to changes in static equilibrium are found in this structure. 39) Chemically sensitive cilia are found in this structure. |
36) D 37) B 38) A 39) C |
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A) Spiral organ (of Corti) 40) Houses the spiral organ (of Corti). 41) The receptor organ for hearing. 42) The central part of the bony labyrinth. 43) A membrane that transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles. |
40) B 41) A 42) C 43) D |
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A) Tinnitus 44) Loss of hearing resulting from prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds. 45) Can result from the fusion of the auditory ossicles. 46) A possible side effect of medications such as aspirin. 47) One of the most common results of otitis media. 48) Can result from impacted cerumen. |
44) B 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) C |
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1) Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained? A) The nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment. B) The metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients. C) These cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells. D) The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus. |
D) The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus. |
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2) In a person who is color blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? |
C) absence of green or red cones in their foveae |
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3) Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night? |
A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment. |
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4) Which of the following is the best explanation for why night vision is fuzzy and indistinct? |
C) The foveae are densely packed with cones. |
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5) Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? |
B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. |
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6) The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? |
D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects |
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7) Photoreceptors are modified neurons. However, they differ from most neurons in the fact that ________. |
D) photoreceptors will hyperpolarize when stimulated |
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8) Overlap in the visual fields of our eyes ________. |
D) allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas |
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9) If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________. A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain |
A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain |
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10) Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaptation. |
A) Visual acuity is diminished. |
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11) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? A) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types. |
A) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types. |
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12) Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? A) A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell. |
A) A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell. |
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13) Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells? |
C) The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once. |
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14) Flavor preferences, our likes and dislikes are said to have a "homeostatic value". Which of the following is the best example of this homeostatic value for taste preferences? |
B) Alkaloids are chemical compounds in plants that are frequently toxic "antifeedant" chemicals. Alkaloids are often unpleasantly bitter. |
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15) Labyrinthitis is a medical condition often caused by viral infection, resulting in swelling and inflammation of the membranous labyrinth. Which of the following symptoms would you most associate with the condition of labyrinthitis? |
D) loss of balance and dizziness |
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16) The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. |
C) greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells |
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17) A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result? |
A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds. |
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18) Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works? |
C) Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris. |
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19) Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________. |
A) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct |
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20) What is the main function of the rods in the eye? |
A) vision in dim light |
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21) Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life? |
A) olfactory receptor cells |
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22) Bitter taste is elicited by ________. |
B) alkaloids |
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23) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________. |
A) macula |
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24) The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________. |
B) hyperopia |
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25) Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________. |
D) eye |
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26) Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear? |
C) pharyngotympanic tube |
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27) Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________. |
C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma |
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28) Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________. |
B) has no blood supply |
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29) The oval window is connected directly to which passageway? |
B) scala vestibuli |
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30) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? |
B) ganglion cells |
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31) The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________. |
D) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus |
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32) As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________. |
D) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane |
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33) Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors? |
A) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. |
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34) Taste buds are not found ________. |
B) in filiform papillae |
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35) Select the correct statement about olfaction. |
C) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain. |
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36) What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close? |
A) tarsal gland secretions |
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37) Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? |
C) umami-triglycerides and fatty acids |
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38) Another name for the primary visual cortex is ________. |
D) striate cortex |
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39) Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate? |
C) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes. |
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40) Dark adaptation ________. |
A) involves accumulation of rhodopsin |
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41) Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________. |
D) occipital lobe of the cortex |
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42) In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________. |
A) primary visual cortex |
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43) Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark. |
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus |
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44) Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________. |
A) brain stem reflex centers |
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45) Motion sickness seems to ________. |
B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs |
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46) The only special sense not fully functional at birth is the sense of ________. |
D) vision |
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47) Most newborns ________. |
D) often use only one eye at a time |
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48) The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________. |
B) there are no photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye |
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49) The first vestiges of eyes in the embryo are called ________. |
A) optic vesicles |
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50) Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? |
B) frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound |
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51) Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________. |
C) substances in solution |
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52) Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope? |
C) optic chiasma |
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53) The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. |
B) ganglion cells |
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54) During dark adaptation ________. |
B) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods |
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55) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________. |
B) otoliths |
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56) The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________. |
B) is connected to the levator palpebrae |
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57) Which of the following is true about photoreceptors? |
C) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision. |
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58) Select the correct statement about equilibrium. |
C) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration. |
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59) The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________. |
A) inferior oblique |
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60) The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________. |
C) gustatory hairs |
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61) Light passes through the following structures in which order? |
D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor |
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62) Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________. |
A) convergence |
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63) Which statement about sound localization is not true? |
C) It requires processing at the cortical level. |
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64) Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness? |
C) cochlear nerve degeneration |
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65) Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________. |
B) night vision |
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