Anatomy & Physiology Exam 3 (ch.11-15)

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A) C
B) B
C) A
1. Which neuron would activate to a muscle?
2. Which neuron would be found in the retina of the eye?
3. Which neuron is a sensory neuron found in a reflex arc?
4. Which neuron is never myelinated?
5. Which neuron is typically involved in the special senses of sight and smell?
6. In a reflex arc, which neuron has its cell body inside the spinal cord?
7. Which neuron is common only in dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves?
8. Which is by far the most common neuron type?

1) C 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) C

A) C
B) E
C) B
D) D
E) A
9. Ion channel.
10. Synaptic vesicles.
11. Calcium ions.
12. Postsynaptic membrane.
13. Synaptic cleft.

9) B 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) D

A) Depolarization
B) Action potential
C) Relative refractory period
D) Absolute refractory period
E) Repolarization
14. The neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus, no matter how strong.
15. The interior of the cell becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions.
16. The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.
17. Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.
18. An exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response.

14) D 15) A 16) E 17) B 18) C

A) Spatial summation
B) Subthreshold stimulus
C) Threshold stimulus
D) Temporal summation
19. Numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cumulative effect
20. Stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by many terminals at the same time.
21. An insufficient stimulus to reach an action potential.
22. Any stimulus at or above this level will result in action potential.

19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C

A) Secretory zone
B) Conducting region
C) Secretory region
D) Trigger zone
E) Receptive region
23. Area where nerve impulse is generated.
24. Receives stimuli.
25. Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels.
26. Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
27. Axon terminals release neurotransmitters.
28. Plasma membrane exhibits chemically gated ion channels.

23) D 24) E 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) E

A) Parallel after-discharge circuit
B) Reverberating circuit
C) Diverging circuit
D) Converging circuit
29. One incoming axon triggers responses in ever-increasing numbers farther and farther along the circuit.
30. May be involved in complex, exacting types of mental processing
31. Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing.
32. Involved in activating fibers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps muscle.
33. Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.

29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D

1) Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart’s rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division

D) parasympathetic division

2) Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division

A) sensory (afferent) division

3) Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division

B) somatic nervous system

4) Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division

A) sensory (afferent) division

5) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

6) The concentration neurotransmitters in the fluid of the synaptic cleft must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

7) Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

8) Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection?
A) Schwann cells
B) oligodendrocytes
C) microglia
D) satellite cells

C) microglia

9) Like all cells, the neurons’ internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) neurons produce many proteins
B) neurons must meet a high demand for ATP
C) neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen
D) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments

D) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments

10) An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential?
A) The sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes.
B) Potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions.
C) Voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization.
D) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels.

D) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels.

11) The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation except one. Choose the statement below that is not a consequence of the closing of inactivating gates.
A) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell.
B) This allows for the one way transmission of action potential down the axon.
C) This limits the frequency of action potentials down the axon.
D) This stops the depolarization of the axon membrane.

A) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell.

12) During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________.
A) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane
B) the membrane is now impermeable to all ions
C) the sodium potassium pump will stop working during relative refractory
D) the inactivation gates on voltage gated sodium ion channels are closed

A) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane

3) If a post synaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation this implies that ________.
A) the post synaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold
B) the post synaptic cell has many voltage gated ion channels
C) the post synaptic cell is slow to repolarize
D) the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons

D) the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons

14) If a post synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________.
A) the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell
B) the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential
C) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP
D) the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP

C) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP

15) When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell?
A) Chemically gated chloride channels will open.
B) Chemically gated potassium channels will open.
C) Chemically gated sodium channels will open.
D) Chemically gated sodium channels will be closed.

C) Chemically gated sodium channels will open.

16) When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the post synaptic cell?
A) influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell
B) opening of chemically gated sodium channels
C) depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane
D) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane

D) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane

17) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so?
A) Acetylcholine has many different forms.
B) Acetylcholine has a "dose effect". Larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit.
C) Postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times.
D) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors.

D) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors.

18) Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
C) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
D) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS

A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

19) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________.
A) ependymal cells
B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
D) Schwann cells

A) ependymal cells

20) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
A) size of action potentials
B) origin of the stimulus
C) type of stimulus receptor
D) frequency of action potentials

D) frequency of action potentials

21) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
A) motor neurons
B) called neuroglial cells
C) found in the retina of the eye
D) found in ganglia

C) found in the retina of the eye

22) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
A) gamma aminobutyric acid
B) cholinesterase
C) norepinephrine
D) acetylcholine

D) acetylcholine

23) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
C) senses changes in the environment

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

24) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.
A) repolarization
B) resting period
C) absolute refractory period
D) depolarization

C) absolute refractory period

25) Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?
A) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.
B) They conduct impulses.
C) They have extreme longevity.
D) They are mitotic.

D) They are mitotic.

26) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following?
A) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft
B) stimulation of the production of acetylcholine
C) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh
D) inability to release acetylcholine

A) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft

27) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of skeletal muscle
C) innervation of cardiac muscle
D) innervation of glands

B) innervation of skeletal muscle

28) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) ganglia
B) nerves
C) tracts
D) nuclei

A) ganglia

29) The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) brain and spinal cord
B) sensory (afferent) nerves
C) the somatic nerves
D) the spinal nerves

A) brain and spinal cord

30) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
B) diphasic impulses
C) large nerve fibers
D) the myelin sheath

D) the myelin sheath

31) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) biogenic amine
B) nucleic acid
C) amino acid
D) ATP and other purines

B) nucleic acid

32) Which of the following is false or incorrect?
A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.
B) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.
C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

33) Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses.
A) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell.
B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.
C) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses.
D) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells.

A) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell.

34) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?
A) it has a depolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization phase
B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes
C) it is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane
D) it travels long distances

B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes

35) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) astrocytes
B) microglia
C) ependymal cells
D) oligodendrocytes

D) oligodendrocytes

36) Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open?
A) voltage gated calcium channels
B) chemically gated chloride channels
C) voltage gated potassium channels
D) voltage gated sodium channels

C) voltage gated potassium channels

37) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.
A) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
B) a change in sodium ion permeability
C) hyperpolarization
D) opening of voltage-regulated channels

C) hyperpolarization

38) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
B) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
C) Specific sodium gates will open.
D) Specific potassium gates will open.

B) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.

39) When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.
A) action potential
B) excitatory potential
C) postsynaptic potential
D) generator potential

D) generator potential

40) Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?
A) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
B) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.
C) They can form on receptor endings.
D) They are short-lived.

A) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

41) Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
C) Ions always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
D) Ions always move passively across membranes.

B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.

42) A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.
A) all sodium gates are closed
B) the membrane potential has been reestablished
C) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
D) proteins have been resynthesized

B) the membrane potential has been reestablished

43) The interior surface of a neuron’s plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________.
A) negative charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell
B) positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
C) positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell
D) negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell

D) negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell

44) If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.
A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur
B) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
C) muscle contraction would occur
D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only

B) the impulse would spread bidirectionally

45) Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential?
A) moves membrane potential away from threshold
B) opens K+ or Cl- channels
C) short distance depolarization
D) short distance hyperpolarization

C) short distance depolarization

1) That part of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system.

somatic

2) Neuroglia found in the CNS that change the permeability of capillaries in the brain by binding to and surrounding these blood vessels are called ________.

astrocytes

3) A chemical messenger that does not directly cause ESPSs or IPSPs but does affect the strength of synaptic transmission is a ________.

neuromodulator

4) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the ________.

electrical synapse

5) When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway, the process is called ________ processing.

parallel

6) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.

temporal

A) C
B) E
C) A
D) B
E) D
1) White fiber tracts.
2) Thalamus.
3) Pons.
4) Hypothalamus.
5) Medulla Oblongata.

1) C 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) B

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
6) Pons.
7) Corpus callosum.
8) Caudate nucleus.
9) Globus pallidus.
10) Thalamus.

6) E 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D

A) D
B) A
C) C
D) B
E) E
11) Site of somatic motor neuron cell bodies.
12) Consists entirely of interneuron cell bodies.
13) Site of sensory neuron cell bodies.
14) Gray commissure.
15) Site of autonomic motor neuron cell bodies.
16) Area that encloses the central canal.
17) Unipolar neurons are found here.

11) C 12) D 13) E 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) E

A) Insula
B) Parietal lobe
C) Frontal lobe
D) Temporal lobe
E) Occipital lobe
18) Auditory area.
19) Primary somatosensory cortex.
20) Primary (somatic) motor cortex.
21) Motor speech (Broca’s) area.
22) Premotor cortex.
23) Visual area.
24) Gustatory (taste) area.
25) Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning.

18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) A 25) C

A) Primary (somatic) motor cortex
B) Hypothalamus
C) Thalamus
D) Prefrontal cortex
26) A major relay station for sensory information ascending to the cerebral cortex. Contains many specialized nuclei.
27) This brain area associates experiences necessary for the production of abstract ideas, judgment, and conscience.
28) The axons from this area form the major pyramidal (corticospinal) tracts.
29) This area is the main visceral control center of the body.

26) C 27) D 28) A 29) B

A) NREM stage 2
B) REM
C) NREM stage 1
D) NREM stage 4
E) NREM stage 3
30) The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels.
31) Indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs.
32) Theta and delta waves begin to appear.
33) Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep.
34) Typified by sleep spindles.
35) Begins about 90 minutes after the onset of sleep.
36) May allow the brain to work through emotional problems in dream imagery.

30) D 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B

A) Brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Hypothalamus
D) Cerebrum
E) Thalamus
37) Gateway to the cerebrum.
38) Ensures coordination and balance.
39) Produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival.
40) Executive suite.
41) Visceral command center.

37) E 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) C

A) Conus medullaris
B) Cauda equina
C) Filum terminale
D) Cervical enlargement
42) Where nerves serving the upper limbs arise.
43) Anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx.
44) Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal.
45) Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult.

42) D 43) C 44) B 45) A

1) Which brain nucleus is the body’s "biological clock"?
A) lentiform nucleus
B) dorsomedial nucleus
C) subthalamic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus

D) suprachiasmatic nucleus

2) The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) flocculonodular nodes
C) cerebellar white matter
D) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum

C) cerebellar white matter

3) The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) midbrain, medulla, and pons
B) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
C) midbrain only
D) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla

A) midbrain, medulla, and pons

4) The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) frontal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) prefrontal lobe

B) temporal lobe

5) Spinocerebellar tracts ________.
A) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
B) terminate in the spinal cord
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum

D) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum

6) What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) astrocytes
D) epithelial cells

A) ependymal cells

7) The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and epidura
C) arachnoid and dura
D) arachnoid and pia

D) arachnoid and pia

8) Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
A) cerebrum
B) medulla oblongata
C) midbrain
D) pons

B) medulla oblongata

9) Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in ________.
A) the thalamus
B) sympathetic ganglia
C) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
D) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord

C) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

10) Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
A) lateral fissure
B) central fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) longitudinal fissure

D) longitudinal fissure

11) Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?
A) motor command center
B) executive suite
C) visceral command center
D) decussation center

B) executive suite

12) A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) gyrus
B) furrow
C) fissure
D) sulcus

D) sulcus

13) Which of the following generalizations does NOT describe the cerebral cortex?
A) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
B) No functional area of the cortex works alone.
C) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.
D) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.

A) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

14) If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.
A) hindbrain would not be present
B) spinal cord may be affected
C) cranial nerves would not form
D) telencephalon would cease development

B) spinal cord may be affected

15) The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from parietal
B) frontal from temporal
C) parietal from occipital
D) temporal from parietal

A) frontal from parietal

16) Neural tracts that convey information to the brain concerning temperature and pain would be ________.
A) reticulospinal
B) lateral spinothalamic
C) ventral (anterior) spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic

B) lateral spinothalamic

17) Which of these would you NOT find in the cerebral cortex?
A) fiber tracts
B) interneurons
C) dendrites
D) cell bodies

A) fiber tracts

18) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) cell bodies
D) myelinated nerve fibers only

A) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

19) Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei?
A) playing a role in cognition and emotion
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) initiating protective reflex actions
D) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements

C) initiating protective reflex actions

20) Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) spinal nerve roots
B) lower motor neurons
C) neuromuscular junction
D) upper motor neurons

D) upper motor neurons

21) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) fissures
B) ganglia
C) sulci
D) gyri

D) gyri

22) The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) cranial fossa
C) lateral sulcus
D) central sulcus

C) lateral sulcus

23) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Damage to the visual association area can result in blindness.
B) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible.
C) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.
D) Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions.

D) Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions.

24) Broca’s area ________.
A) controls voluntary movements of the eyes
B) serves the recognition of complex objects
C) is considered a motor speech area
D) is usually found only in the right hemisphere

C) is considered a motor speech area

25) Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
A) limbic association area
B) prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)
C) posterior association area
D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex

B) prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)

26) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) alcohol
B) anesthetics
C) nutrients such as glucose
D) metabolic waste such as urea

D) metabolic waste such as urea

27) All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________.
A) cingulate gyrus
B) caudate nucleus
C) amygdaloid body
D) hippocampus

B) caudate nucleus

28) The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.
A) association
B) automatic memory
C) rehearsal
D) long-term memory

A) association

29) Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?
A) motor
B) procedural
C) emotional
D) declarative

B) procedural

30) The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) reticular formation
B) limbic system
C) thalamus
D) pyramids

A) reticular formation

31) Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
A) red blood cells
B) glucose
C) protein
D) potassium

A) red blood cells

32) REM sleep is associated with ________.
A) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
B) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
C) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex

B) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm

33) Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF?
A) nourishment of the brain
B) reduction of brain weight
C) initiation of some nerve impulses
D) protection from blows

C) initiation of some nerve impulses

34) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) loss of fine motor control
B) loss of body temperature control
C) sleep disturbances
D) dehydration

A) loss of fine motor control

35) Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.
A) red nuclei
B) reticular nuclei
C) vestibular nuclei
D) superior colliculi

C) vestibular nuclei

36) Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) medulla oblongata
C) thalamus
D) hippocampus

B) medulla oblongata

37) The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
A) gustatory cortex
B) vestibular cortex
C) visceral sensory area
D) olfactory cortex

C) visceral sensory area

38) Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is a form of deep sleep.
D) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.

A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.

39) Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) cerebellar disease
D) Huntington’s disease

A) Parkinson’s disease

40) Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) swelling
B) concussion
C) contusion
D) hemorrhage

B) concussion

41) Declarative memory ________.
A) is the ability to learn specific information
B) usually involves motor skills
C) is best remembered in the doing
D) is hard to unlearn when learned once

A) is the ability to learn specific information

42) Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
A) Wernicke’s area
B) red nuclei
C) gustatory cortex
D) postcentral gyrus

B) red nuclei

43) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling.
C) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.
D) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.

A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.

44) White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________.
A) cerebral cortex
B) outer portion of the spinal cord
C) corpus callosum
D) corticospinal tracts

A) cerebral cortex

45) Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________.
A) somatosensory cortex
B) spinal cord
C) thalamus
D) medulla

C) thalamus

46) Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) premotor cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) rubrospinal tracts
D) spinal cord

A) premotor cortex

47) Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults, but are common for children?
A) delta
B) alpha
C) theta
D) beta

C) theta

48) Which ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

D) fourth

49) The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________.
A) corona radiata
B) internal capsule
C) corpus callosum
D) longitudinal fissure

C) corpus callosum

50) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson’s disease.
A) reticular formation
B) internal capsule
C) substantia nigra
D) red nucleus

C) substantia nigra

51) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
A) mammillary bodies
B) infundibulum
C) arbor vitae
D) optic chiasma

B) infundibulum

52) Arachnoid granulations are knoblike projections that protrude superiorly through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood.
A) subarachnoid
B) dura
C) arachnoid
D) pia

B) dura

53) Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the ________.
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) ventral (anterior) horn
C) dorsal (posterior) horn
D) lateral horn

54) Which type of memory is exemplified by a racing heartbeat upon hearing a rattlesnake nearby?
A) declarative (fact)
B) emotional
C) motor
D) procedural (skills)

B) emotional

55) The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
A) diencephalon
B) basal nuclei
C) midbrain
D) brain stem

A) diencephalon

6) The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________.
A) lateral horns
B) pyramids
C) olives
D) nuclei

B) pyramids

57) The corpora quadrigemina are found in the ________.
A) pons
B) midbrain
C) diencephalon
D) cerebellum

B) midbrain

58) Which type of wave predominates during stage 4 NREM sleep?
A) delta
B) alpha
C) beta
D) theta

A) delta

59) The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia.
A) hypothalamus
B) Wernicke’s area
C) thalamus
D) hippocampus

D) hippocampus

60) Sleepwalking may occur during ________.
A) NREM stage 4
B) NREM stage 1
C) NREM stage 2
D) REM

A) NREM stage 4

61) Which of the following is a dural septum, described as a large sickle-shaped fold that dips into the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres?
A) tentorium cerebelli
B) corpus callosum
C) falx cerebelli
D) falx cerebri

D) falx cerebri

62) The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the ________.
A) limbic system
B) basal nuclei
C) reticular activating system
D) cerebellar peduncles

C) reticular activating system

A) E
B) B
C) C
D) D
1. Innervates the superior oblique muscle.
2. Longest cranial nerve.
3. Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance.
4. Involved in movement of the digestive tract.
5. Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on visceral organs.
6. Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally.

1) B 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) B

A) E
B) C
C) A
D) B
E) D
7) Integration center.
8) Sensory neuron.
9) Effector.
10) Motor neuron.
11) Receptor.

7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) C

A) Olfactory
B) Accessory
C) Abducens
D) Vagus
E) Vestibulocochlear

12) Rootlets arise on the spinal cord, enter the skull through the foramen magnum and exit the skull through the jugular foramen.
13) Receptors located in epithelium of the nasal cavity.
14) Serves the senses of hearing and equilibrium.
15) Helps to regulate blood pressure and digestion.
16) Turns the eyeball laterally.

12) B 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) C

A) Plantar
B) Flexor
C) Crossed-extensor
D) Tendon
E) Stretch

17) Tests both upper and lower motor pathways. The sole of the foot is stimulated with a dull instrument.
18) Consists of an ipsilateral withdrawal reflex and a contralateral extensor reflex; important in maintaining balance.
19) Produces a rapid withdrawal of the body part from a painful stimulus; ipsilateral.
20) Prevents muscle overstretching and maintains muscle tone.
21) Produces muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to tension; the contracting muscle relaxes as its antagonist is activated.

17) A 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) D

A) Brachial plexus
B) Lumbar plexus
C) Cervical plexus
D) Sacral plexus

22) The obturator and femoral nerves branch from this plexus.
23) Striking the "funny bone" (ulnar nerve) may cause injury to a nerve of this plexus.
24) Trauma to a nerve of this plexus may cause wrist drop.
25) A fall or improper administration of an injection to the buttocks may injure a nerve of this plexus.
26) The phrenic nerve branches from this plexus.

22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) C

A) Segmental level
B) Projection level
C) Precommand level

27) Controls the outputs of the cortex and regulates motor activity.
28) Central pattern generators.
29) Intermediate relay for incoming and outgoing neurons.
30) The cerebellum and basal nuclei.
31) Includes cortical and brain stem motor areas.
32) The neural machinery of the spinal cord, including spinal cord circuits.

27) C 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) A

A) B
B) A
C) C

33) Contain autonomic nerve fibers.
34) Supplies the posterior body trunk.
35) Supplies all of the body except the posterior.
36) All but T2-T12 branch and form nerve plexuses.
37) Supplies each muscle with fibers from more

33) C 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A

A) Pacinian corpuscle
B) Ruffini endings
C) Meissner corpuscle

38) Lamellar corpuscle.
39) Bulbous corpuscle.
40) Tactile corpuscle.

38) A 39) B 40) C

1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
A) nociceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) thermoreceptors

A) nociceptors

2) Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. This stretch indicates the blood’s pressure. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above?
A) thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
B) thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors
C) mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
D) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors

D) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors

3) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body’s positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability.
A) nociceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) exteroceptors
D) interoceptors

B) proprioceptors

4) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation?
A) mechanoreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) thermoreceptors

A) mechanoreceptors

5) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex?
A) lamellae corpuscle
B) free nerve ending
C) tendon organ
D) bulbous corpuscle

C) tendon organ

6) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus’ strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves?
A) More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus.
B) An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus’s strength increases.
C) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus’ strength increases.
D) Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases.

C) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus’ strength increases.

7) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following?
A) vagus nerve (X)
B) hypoglossal nerve (XII)
C) facial nerve (VIII)
D) olfactory nerve (I)

D) olfactory nerve (I)

8) A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________.
A) the optic chiasm
B) the retinas of the eyes
C) the optic nerves
D) the right optic tract

D) the right optic tract

9) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient’s eye. She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following?
A) The patient has suffered brain damage.
B) The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV).
C) The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II).
D) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).

D) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).

10) A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to happen?
A) Stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain.
B) Stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland.
C) Nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea.
D) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.

D) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.

11) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right. Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested?
A) the oculomotor nerve (III)
B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
C) the abducens (VI)
D) the trochlear nerve (IV)

B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

12) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus?
A) the vagus nerve (X)
B) the optic nerve (II)
C) the facial nerve (VII)
D) the olfactory nerve (I)

C) the facial nerve (VII)

13) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________.
A) they show the routes of motor nerves
B) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus
C) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
D) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery

C) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury

14) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________.
A) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
B) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
C) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra
D) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra

B) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra

15) Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________.
A) several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart
B) the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here
C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here
D) part of the brain stem is located here

C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here

16) Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because ________.
A) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ
B) having several nerve fibers unite enhances sensory function
C) viruses that infect us by moving through PNS nerves are prevented entry to the CNS
D) having several nerve fibers unite enhances motor function

A) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ

17) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following test might the doctor try on her patient?
A) Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away.
B) Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger.
C) Have bill flex and extend his arm against resistance.
D) Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet.

A) Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away.

18) Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) radial
B) phrenic
C) ulnar
D) median

B) phrenic

19) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) femoral
B) obturator
C) tibial
D) common fibular

C) tibial

20) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________.
A) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
B) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots
C) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks
D) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

D) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

21) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) vagus
C) glossopharyngeal
D) accessory

D) accessory

22) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?
A) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.
B) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential
called a transduction potential.
C) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.
D) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor’s receptive field.

B) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.

23) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) ilioinguinal
B) femoral
C) sciatic
D) iliohypogastric

B) femoral

24) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) sacral plexus
C) thoracic plexus
D) femoral plexus

B) sacral plexus

25) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________.
A) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
B) always mediated by the brain
C) autonomic only
D) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses

A) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

26) Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
A) median nerve
B) radial nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) sciatic nerve

C) ulnar nerve

27) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) flexor reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex

B) tendon reflex

28) Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) nociceptors
B) pressure receptors
C) smell receptors
D) touch receptors

B) pressure receptors

29) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) mixed nerves
C) efferent nerves
D) motor nerves

A) afferent nerves

30) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Schwann cells
B) Wallerian cells
C) Golgi organs
D) dendrites

A) Schwann cells

31) Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
B) is more successful than with the PNS
C) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
D) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm

A) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

32) In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
A) abduct
B) also flex
C) extend
D) adduct

C) extend

33) Select the correct definition.
A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
B) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
C) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures.

B) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

34) All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) medulla
B) reticular formation
C) pons
D) thalamus

D) thalamus

35) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) pudendal and common fibular
C) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
D) common fibular and tibial

D) common fibular and tibial

36) Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) ulnar
B) radial
C) median
D) axillary

C) median

37) Bell’s palsy is ________.
A) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
B) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
C) characterized by loss of vision
D) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles

A) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

38) Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
C) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
D) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

A) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

39) Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) facial
B) olfactory
C) oculomotor
D) trigeminal

B) olfactory

40) Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) receptor energy to stimulus energy
B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential
C) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

41) Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) trigeminal
B) vestibulocochlear
C) abducens
D) accessory

B) vestibulocochlear

42) A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
A) vagus
B) glossopharyngeal
C) accessory
D) olfactory

D) olfactory

43) Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
B) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
C) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
D) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.

A) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

44) A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) sciatica
B) neurofibromatosis
C) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
D) phantom limb pain

A) sciatica

45) Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissner’s corpuscles
B) hair follicle receptors
C) Lamellar corpuscles
D) tactile discs

C) Lamellar corpuscles

46) A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) glossopharyngeal
D) facial

D) facial

47) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) a complete loss of sensation and movement
B) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
C) complete loss of sensation
D) a complete loss of voluntary movement

D) a complete loss of voluntary movement

A) C
B) A
C) B
D) D

1) Myelin sheath.

2) Cell body of an ANS preganglionic neuron.

3) Cell body of an ANS postganglionic neuron.

4) Cell body of a somatic motor neuron.

1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D

A) Sympathetic
B) Parasympathetic

5) Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers.

6) Collateral ganglia.

7) Active after you have eaten a meal.

8) Decreases heart rate.

9) Maintenance functions.

10) Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision.

11) Increases blood pressure.

5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A

A) Norepinephrine (NE)
B) Acetylcholine (ACh)

12) Secreted by preganglionic sympathetic fibers.

13) Secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

14) Secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers to sweat glands.

15) Secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

16) Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers.

12) B 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) A

1) Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS?
A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
C) general visceral motor system
D) involuntary nervous system

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

2) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) somatic nervous system
B) parasympathetic division
C) cerebrum
D) sympathetic division

D) sympathetic division

3) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) their effectors
B) target organ responses to their neurotransmitters
C) regulation of activity by higher brain centers
D) their efferent pathways and ganglia

C) regulation of activity by higher brain centers

4) Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor?
A) all postganglionic neurons (cell bodies and dendrites)
B) adrenal medulla hormone producing cells
C) sarcolemma of skeletal muscle cells at neuromuscular junctions
D) all parasympathetic target organs

D) all parasympathetic target organs

5) The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.
A) submandibular ganglion
B) ciliary ganglion
C) pterygopalatine ganglion
D) otic ganglion

B) ciliary ganglion

6) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) weak dilation of the blood vessels of skeletal muscles during exercise
B) increase of heart rate and force
C) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
D) constriction of most blood vessels

C) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

7) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerves ________.
A) VII (facial)
B) XII (hypoglossal)
C) V (trigeminal)
D) X (vagus)

D) X (vagus)

8) The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) parasympathetic division
B) somatic division
C) peripheral division
D) sympathetic division

A) parasympathetic division

9) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) thalamus
B) medulla
C) hypothalamus
D) cerebellum

C) hypothalamus

10) Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) most glands
B) smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) skeletal muscle

D) skeletal muscle

11) Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) elimination of urine
B) salivation
C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
D) dilation of the pupils

D) dilation of the pupils

12) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.
B) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.
D) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served.

B) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

13) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) preganglionic fibers are short
B) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
D) preganglionic fibers are long

C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

14) Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
A) first coccyx
B) third lumbar
C) first thoracic
D) second cervical

C) first thoracic

15) Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
A) the cell bodies of motor neurons
B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
C) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
D) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

A) the cell bodies of motor neurons

16) The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
A) oculomotor (III)
B) abducens (VI)
C) optic (II)
D) trochlear (IV)

A) oculomotor (III)

17) Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________.
A) gray rami communicantes
B) splanchnic nerves
C) white rami communicantes
D) spinal nerves

B) splanchnic nerves

18) Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve?
A) pulmonary
B) esophageal
C) cardiac
D) inferior hypogastric

D) inferior hypogastric

19) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
D) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

D) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

20) The parasympathetic tone ________.
A) causes blood pressure to rise
B) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration
C) accelerates activity of the digestive tract
D) determines normal activity of the urinary tract

D) determines normal activity of the urinary tract

21) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT?
A) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
B) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
C) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron
D) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

B) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

22) Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions?
A) reticular formation
B) hypothalamus
C) midbrain
D) medulla oblongata

A) reticular formation

23) Drugs called beta-blockers ________.
A) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
B) have widespread sympathetic effects
C) increase a dangerously low heart rate
D) are potent antidepressants

A) decrease heart rate and blood pressure

24) Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
B) is primarily under sympathetic control
C) is primarily under parasympathetic control
D) depends very little on autonomic activation

C) is primarily under parasympathetic control

25) Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of pupil size
B) regulation of respiratory rate
C) regulation of body temperature
D) regulation of cardiac rate

C) regulation of body temperature

26) Raynaud’s disease ________.
A) is frequently life threatening
B) is induced by heat stress
C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
D) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

D) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

27) Autonomic dysreflexia ________.
A) usually precedes spinal shock
B) results from over-excitatory input from the cortex
C) is also known as autonomic areflexia
D) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons

D) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons

28) Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve?
A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers
B) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
C) those that synapse with somatic fibers
D) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered

B) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

29) Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity?
A) alpha 1
B) beta 1
C) beta 2
D) beta 3

B) beta 1

30) Where would you NOT find autonomic ganglia?
A) unpaired, anterior to spinal cord
B) within wall of organ served or close to organ
C) paired, beside spinal cord
D) within spinal cord

D) within spinal cord

31) Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

A) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

32) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
A) pelvic nerves
B) vagus (X) nerves
C) lumbar splanchnic nerves
D) cephalic plexus

B) vagus (X) nerves

33) Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
B) raising blood glucose levels
C) lens accommodation for close vision
D) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction

C) lens accommodation for close vision

34) Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
A) lateral geniculate of the thalamus
B) hypothalamus
C) lateral horn of the spinal cord
D) inferior colliculus

B) hypothalamus

35) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________.
A) cell bodies and dendrites of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
B) cell bodies and dendrites of sympathetic postganglionic neurons
C) the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla
D) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers

D) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers

36) Which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products?
A) sympathomimetic agents
B) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
C) nicotinic agents
D) parasympathomimetic agents (muscarinic agents)

C) nicotinic agents

37) A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT ________.
A) inability to read close-up print
B) increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood
C) increased rate and force of heartbeat
D) increased metabolic rate

B) increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood

38) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) promotes urination; sympathetic
B) gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic
C) bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic
D) penis ejaculation; sympathetic

A) promotes urination; sympathetic

39) Which type of drug would be useful in dilating the pupils for an examination of the retina?
A) alpha-1 receptor inhibitor
B) beta-3 receptor mimic
C) beta-1 receptor mimic
D) muscarinic receptor inhibitor

D) muscarinic receptor inhibitor

40) Which target organ receives dual innervation?
A) small intestine
B) kidney
C) sweat glands
D) coronary blood vessels

A) small intestine

41) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh
B) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh
C) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE
D) sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE

C) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE

A) B
B) E
C) A
D) D
E) C

1) Ganglion cells.

2) Bipolar cells.

3) Horizontal cell.

4) Amacrine cell.

5) Rod.

1) B 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) A

A) D
B) C
C) E
D) A
E) B

6) Protects and shapes the eyeball; provides a sturdy anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles.

7) Blood vessels that supply nutrition to most of the eyes’ structures (excluding the lens and cornea).

8) Contains only cones; provides detailed color vision.

9) Lacks photoreceptors; where optic nerve exits the eye.

10) Consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer.

6) D 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) B

A) A
B) C
C) B
D) E
E) D

11) Acts as a reflexively activated diaphragm to vary pupil size.

12) The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or no rejection.

13) Controls lens shape.

14) Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer.

15) Fluid blockages cause glaucoma.

11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) E

A) C
B) B
C) A
D) D
E) E

16) Auricle.

17) Tympanic membrane.

18) Stapes.

19) Semicircular canals.

20) Cochlea.

21) Balance organ.

22) Houses organ of Corti.

16) C 17) E 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) D

A) Lens
B) Retina
C) Aqueous humor
D) Fovea centralis

23) The sensory layer of the eye.

24) The structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye.

25) Helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye.

26) Area of greatest visual acuity.

23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D

A) Otoliths
B) Vestibule
C) Pharyngotympanic tube
D) Tympanic membrane

27) Ear stones.

28) Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx.

29) Separates external acoustic meatus from the middle ear.

30) Contains utricle and saccule.

31) Detects linear acceleration.

27) A 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) B

A) Conduction deafness
B) Otitis media
C) Night blindness
D) Glaucoma

32) A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A.

33) A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis.

34) An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear.

35) A condition often leading to blindness due to increased intraocular pressure.

32) C 33) A 34) B 35) D

A) Macula
B) Taste buds
C) Olfactory epithelium
D) Crista ampullaris

36) Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure.

37) Chemically sensitive microvilli found in this structure.

38) Hair cells receptive to changes in static equilibrium are found in this structure.

39) Chemically sensitive cilia are found in this structure.

36) D 37) B 38) A 39) C

A) Spiral organ (of Corti)
B) Cochlear duct
C) Vestibule
D) Tympanic membrane

40) Houses the spiral organ (of Corti).

41) The receptor organ for hearing.

42) The central part of the bony labyrinth.

43) A membrane that transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles.

40) B 41) A 42) C 43) D

A) Tinnitus
B) Sensorineural deafness
C) Conduction deafness

44) Loss of hearing resulting from prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds.

45) Can result from the fusion of the auditory ossicles.

46) A possible side effect of medications such as aspirin.

47) One of the most common results of otitis media.

48) Can result from impacted cerumen.

44) B 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) C

1) Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained?

A) The nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment.

B) The metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients.

C) These cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells.

D) The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.

D) The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.

2) In a person who is color blind, which of the following would you most expect to see?
A) a loss of functions in the rods of their retina
B) an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching
C) absence of green or red cones in their foveae
D) a loss of their peripheral vision

C) absence of green or red cones in their foveae

3) Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night?
A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.
D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.

A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.

4) Which of the following is the best explanation for why night vision is fuzzy and indistinct?
A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.
D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.

C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.

5) Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color?
A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.
D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.

B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.

6) The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following?
A) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
B) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
C) a clouding of the lenses know as a cataract
D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects

D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects

7) Photoreceptors are modified neurons. However, they differ from most neurons in the fact that ________.
A) photoreceptors do not have fluctuations in membrane potential
B) photoreceptors do not release neurotransmitters
C) photoreceptors are sensitive to energy changes in the external environment
D) photoreceptors will hyperpolarize when stimulated

D) photoreceptors will hyperpolarize when stimulated

8) Overlap in the visual fields of our eyes ________.
A) leaves a blind spot anterior to the nose and in the lateral fields of vision
B) is essentially a waste of brain processing for what is essentially the same image
C) gives us higher visual acuity for small detail by doubling the number of photoreceptors that are being stimulated
D) allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas

D) allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas

9) If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________.

A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain
B) information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes
C) a small portion of light always enters the other eye
D) this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated

A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain

10) Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaptation.
A) Visual acuity is diminished.
B) Retinal sensitivity decreases.
C) Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction.
D) The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin.

A) Visual acuity is diminished.

11) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors?

A) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.
B) Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors.
C) Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white.
D) Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain.

A) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.

12) Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?

A) A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell.
B) There are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors.
C) There are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision.
D) A larger proportion of the brain’s visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photo receptors are most active.

A) A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell.

13) Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells?
A) The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination.
B) The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories.
C) The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.
D) Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell.

C) The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.

14) Flavor preferences, our likes and dislikes are said to have a "homeostatic value". Which of the following is the best example of this homeostatic value for taste preferences?
A) The temperature, smell and texture of foods will influence its overall taste.
B) Alkaloids are chemical compounds in plants that are frequently toxic "antifeedant" chemicals. Alkaloids are often unpleasantly bitter.
C) Capsaicin is a chemical compound in chili peppers. Nociceptors in the mouth respond to this chemical with the sensation of heat.
D) Monosodium glutamate is a food additive that stimulates umami taste (gustatory) cells.

B) Alkaloids are chemical compounds in plants that are frequently toxic "antifeedant" chemicals. Alkaloids are often unpleasantly bitter.

15) Labyrinthitis is a medical condition often caused by viral infection, resulting in swelling and inflammation of the membranous labyrinth. Which of the following symptoms would you most associate with the condition of labyrinthitis?
A) auditory hallucination
B) loss of hearing
C) ringing in the ears (tinnitus)
D) loss of balance and dizziness

D) loss of balance and dizziness

16) The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________.
A) high volume sounds can travel all the way the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells
B) faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation
C) greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells
D) vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells

C) greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells

17) A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result?
A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.
B) The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear.
C) The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo.
D) The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing loss.

A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.

18) Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works?
A) This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyper polarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula.
B) This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus.
C) Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.
D) When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur.

C) Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.

19) Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________.
A) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
B) middle ear infection
C) an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together
D) a perforated tympanic membrane

A) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct

20) What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
A) vision in dim light
B) accommodation for near vision
C) depth perception
D) color vision

A) vision in dim light

21) Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) olfactory receptor cells
B) auditory outer and inner hair cells
C) retinal ganglion cells
D) retinal bipolar cells

A) olfactory receptor cells

22) Bitter taste is elicited by ________.
A) acids
B) alkaloids
C) hydrogen ions
D) metal ions

B) alkaloids

23) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.
A) macula
B) cochlear duct
C) utricle
D) semicircular canals

A) macula

24) The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________.
A) hypopia
B) hyperopia
C) myopia
D) presbyopia

B) hyperopia

25) Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.
A) skin
B) nose
C) ears
D) eye

D) eye

26) Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) external acoustic meatus
B) tympanic membrane
C) pharyngotympanic tube
D) pinna

C) pharyngotympanic tube

27) Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.
A) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
B) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
D) go to the superior colliculus only

C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

28) Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) has no nerve supply
B) has no blood supply
C) does not contain connective tissue
D) is not a living tissue

B) has no blood supply

29) The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
A) pharyngotympanic tube
B) scala vestibuli
C) external acoustic meatus
D) scala tympani

B) scala vestibuli

30) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?
A) rod cells
B) ganglion cells
C) bipolar cells
D) cone cells

B) ganglion cells

31) The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________.
A) visual cortex
B) superior colliculi
C) temporal lobe
D) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

D) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

32) As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________.
A) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
C) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
D) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

D) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

33) Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
A) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
B) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
C) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.
D) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.

A) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.

34) Taste buds are not found ________.
A) in circumvallate papillae
B) in filiform papillae
C) lining the buccal cavity
D) in fungiform papillae

B) in filiform papillae

35) Select the correct statement about olfaction.
A) Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical.
B) Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors.
C) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
D) Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.

C) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.

36) What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close?
A) tarsal gland secretions
B) lacrimal fluid
C) ciliary gland secretions
D) conjunctival fluid

A) tarsal gland secretions

37) Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?
A) salty-metal ions
B) sweet-organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts
C) umami-triglycerides and fatty acids
D) bitter-alkaloids
E) sour-acids

C) umami-triglycerides and fatty acids

38) Another name for the primary visual cortex is ________.
A) prefrontal cortex
B) prestriate cortex
C) collicular cortex
D) striate cortex

D) striate cortex

39) Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate?
A) The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.
B) Visual pigment content is reduced in cones more than rods.
C) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
D) The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency.

C) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.

40) Dark adaptation ________.
A) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
B) results in inhibition of rod function
C) is much faster than light adaptation
D) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision

A) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

41) Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.
A) superior colliculus
B) thalamus
C) chiasma
D) occipital lobe of the cortex

D) occipital lobe of the cortex

42) In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________.
A) primary visual cortex
B) medial retina
C) lateral geniculate body
D) optic chiasma

A) primary visual cortex

43) Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) superior colliculi
C) lateral geniculate body
D) pretectal nuclei

A) suprachiasmatic nucleus

44) Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.
A) brain stem reflex centers
B) visual cortex
C) motor cortex
D) back muscles

A) brain stem reflex centers

45) Motion sickness seems to ________.
A) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem
B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
C) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs
D) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins

B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

46) The only special sense not fully functional at birth is the sense of ________.
A) equilibrium
B) smell
C) taste
D) vision
E) hearing

D) vision

47) Most newborns ________.
A) are myopic
B) see in tones of red and green only
C) cry with copious tears
D) often use only one eye at a time

D) often use only one eye at a time

48) The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________.
A) the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway
B) there are no photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
C) an absents of cones in the foveae
D) more rods than cones within the retina

B) there are no photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye

49) The first vestiges of eyes in the embryo are called ________.
A) optic vesicles
B) mesenchyme
C) optic discs
D) optic cups

A) optic vesicles

50) Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related?
A) amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound
B) frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound
C) frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths
D) quality of a sound : frequency of the sound

B) frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound

51) Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) stretching of the receptor cells
B) movement of a cupula
C) substances in solution
D) the movement of otoliths

C) substances in solution

52) Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?
A) fovea centralis
B) macula lutea
C) optic chiasma
D) optic disc

C) optic chiasma

53) The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.
A) amacrine cells
B) ganglion cells
C) rods and cones
D) bipolar cells

B) ganglion cells

54) During dark adaptation ________.
A) the cones are activated
B) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
C) the sensitivity of the retina decreases
D) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated

B) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

55) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________.
A) spiral organ (of Corti)
B) otoliths
C) cupula
D) scala media

B) otoliths

56) The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________.
A) is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate
B) is connected to the levator palpebrae
C) is connected to the superior rectus muscle
D) assists in the act of winking

B) is connected to the levator palpebrae

57) Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?
A) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.
B) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.
C) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
D) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black.

C) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

58) Select the correct statement about equilibrium.
A) The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.
B) Hair cells of both types of equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.
C) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
D) Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.

C) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.

59) The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________.
A) inferior oblique
B) medial rectus
C) superior oblique
D) lateral rectus

A) inferior oblique

60) The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.
A) taste buds
B) basal cells
C) gustatory hairs
D) fungiform papillae

C) gustatory hairs

61) Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
B) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
C) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

62) Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________.
A) convergence
B) pupil constriction
C) accommodation
D) refraction

A) convergence

63) Which statement about sound localization is not true?
A) It requires input from both ears.
B) It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline.
C) It requires processing at the cortical level.
D) It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears.

C) It requires processing at the cortical level.

64) Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
A) impacted cerumen
B) otosclerosis
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
D) middle ear infection

C) cochlear nerve degeneration

65) Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________.
A) high-acuity vision
B) night vision
C) movement perception
D) depth perception

B) night vision

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