Anatomy Midterm Lecture

Neuron

Normally, sodium and potassium leakage channels differ because ___________________.

Sodium ions diffuse through leakage channels into the cell, but potassium ions diffuse through leakage channels out of the cell.

A resting membrane potential of -70 mV indicates that the ________________.

Charges lining the inside of the plasma membrane are negative compared to the charges lining the outside.

Graded potentials are produced within the _______________________ segment of a neuron.

Receptive

Graded potentials result from the opening of ________________.

Ligand-gated channels

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential results from the opening of____________________.

Potassium and/or chloride channels

Indicate the summative effect that brings the initial segment closest to threshold.

Two EPSPs in proximity to each other

_______________ the time between signals sent from the same presynaptic terminal increases the strength of the graded potential. This is an example of ________________ summation.

Reducing; temporal

Substances that cause facilitation of a neuron ____________________________.

Cause the neuron to fire that may not fire under the same circumstances in the absence of the facilitator.

Assume in a laboratory you were able to isolate a neuron and remove the Acetylcholine receptors from the postsynaptic membrane. The substance _________________ would no longer cause facilitation of this neuron.

Nicotine

When voltage-gated sodium channels are open, sodium flows _____________ the neuron making the inside of the cell more _______________.

into; positive

The following information best describes the _____________ phase of an action potential.
• A membrane potential reading of +10 mV
• Inactivated voltage-gated sodium channels
• Open voltage-gated potassium channels

Repolarization

Label each phase of the action potential as identified by the highlighted region of each graph.

Action potentials occur ____________________________.

in the unmyelinated regions of an axon.

Demyelinating diseases cause a(n) ______________ in the conduction velocity of action potentials.

decrease

If demyelination occurs, why don’t action potentials occur at regions of the axon that were previously myelinated?

These regions lack the appropriate concentration of voltage-gated sodium channels.

At the synaptic knob, voltage-gated ______________ channels open, thereby stimulating the synaptic vesicles to release their neurotransmitters by exocytosis.

calcium

If acetylcholinesterase became mutated and nonfunctional, what would be the immediate result?

Acetylcholine would build up in the synaptic cleft.

If a drug was developed that interfered with the proper functioning of the microtubules found within the axons of neurons, how would you expect this to impact axonal transport processes?

Both anterograde and retrograde transport processes would cease.

The enzyme choline acetyltransferase catalyzes the reaction between acetyl-CoA and choline resulting in the formation of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. This enzyme is produced within the cell body of neurons, but the synthesis of acetylcholine occurs within the axon terminals. Which statement best describes the axonal transport mechanism associated with this process?

Choline acetyltransferase is transported in the anterograde direction.

Suppose that a new virus is discovered that specifically infects motor neurons. Assume that this virus enters neurons in conjunction with choline molecules. Once inside the cell, the virus enters the nucleus and replicates. Which direction describes the axonal transport route taken by this virus?

Retrograde transport

Indicate the direction of axonal transport by aligning the proper label with each arrow.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of a neuron.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the neuroglia.

Correctly label the structures associated with unmyelinated nerve fibers in the PNS.

Correctly label the following parts of a chemical synapse.

Classify the following images into the types of neural circuits they represent.

Place the labels in the proper position to designate the location of the structures or events.

Place each of the following labels in the proper position on the curve where each of the indicated items would occur.

Place the following labels in the proper position to designate action potential or local potential.

Place each label in the proper position to designate the organ system it describes.

An action potential arriving at the presynaptic terminal causes what to occur?

Voltage-gated calcium ion channels open, and calcium ions diffuse into the cell.

What happens as a result of ion flow at a presynaptic terminal?

Synaptic vesicles migrate to the plasma membrane and release acetylcholine.

Acetylcholine has which effect on the postsynaptic neuron?

Ligand-gated sodium ion channels open and sodium diffuses in.

The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is __________.

acetylcholine

Arrange the following in the order in which they occur at the postsynaptic side of a neuromuscular junction:
1. An action potential is propagated over the muscle cell membrane
2. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
3. Sodium ions move into muscle cell

3. Sodium ions move into muscle cell 2. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane 1. An action potential is propagated over the muscle cell membrane

What is(are) the fundamental physiological properties that enable nerve cells to communicate with other cells?

The ability to respond to environmental changes, the ability to produce electrical signals that are quickly conducted to other cells at distant locations, and the ability to secrete a chemical that will stimulate the next cell when an electrical signal reaches the end of a nerve fiber.

Which of the following is true of interneurons?

They are contained entirely within the CNS and carry signals from one neuron to another.

Choose the correct statement about myelin.

It is best not to give children under two years of age a low-fat diet because myelin formation requires lipids.

The resting membrane potential is negative due to which of the following?

There are more negatively charged particles on the inside of the membrane than on the outside.

What is the most important mechanism for transmitting qualitative information?

The labeled line code

Which of the following describes a reverberating circuit?

There is a prolonged or repetitive effect that lasts until one or more neurons in the circuit fail to fire, or until an inhibitory signal from another source stops one of them from firing and neurons stimulate each other in a linear sequence such as A→B→C→D, but neuron C sends an axon collateral back to A.

When can a damaged peripheral nerve fiber regenerate?

When its soma is intact and at least some neurilemma remains.

Which term describes all neurons that carry signals towards the CNS?

Afferent

Which ion has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential of most neurons?

Potassium

Muscles and nerves exhibit similarities in structure and nomenclature. Drag each label into the appropriate position to identify the neural structure that would correspond to the muscular image.

Drag each label into the appropriate category to designate whether the given item describes elements of gray or white matter of the spinal cord.

Drag each label into the appropriate category to identify from which plexus the given nerve emerges.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the anatomy of a ganglion.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the branches of the spinal nerve in relation to the spinal cord.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the branches of the spinal nerve in relation to the spinal cord.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the rami of the spinal nerves.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the rami of the spinal nerves.

Classify the following structures with the region of the spinal cord in which they are located.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the spinal cord.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the spinal cord.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the spinal cord.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the spinal cord.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the spinal cord.

Drag each label to the appropriate region of the spinal cord.

Drag each label to accurately identify the regions of spinal nerves.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of a nerve.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of a nerve.

Each of the labels below describes a sensory or motor innervation. Identify the spinal nerve plexuses pictured below and drag the innervations to the appropriate category according to which plexus is responsible.

Correctly identify and label the spinal nerves and their plexuses.

Correctly identify and label the anatomical parts of the spinal cord and its accessory structures.

Which portion of a reflex arc is most likely to be located entirely within the central nervous system?

Interneuron

Accurately label the components of a reflex arc on this example.

Drag each label into the appropriate category to designate which reflex is described by the following terms.

Drag each label into the appropriate category to designate whether the given item describes elements of gray or white matter of the spinal cord.

Correctly identify and label the structures associated with the anatomy of a spinal nerve and ganglion.

Functions of the spinal cord include which of the following?

Conduction, locomotion, reflexes

In an adult, the spinal cord ends at which vertebra?

L1

What are the regions of the spinal cord?

Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, sacral

How many spinal nerves are in each region of the spinal cord in order from superior to inferior?

8,12,5,5,1

Which spinal nerve roots carry sensory nerve signals?

Posterior

What is a reflex?

A stereotyped, involuntary response to a stimulus

What is the loose connective tissue surrounding an individual nerve fiber called?

Endoneurium

In which reflex is there a quick contraction of flexor muscles in response to a painful stimulus?

Flexor

What are meninges?

Fibrous connective tissue membranes covering the central nervous system

Drag each label to the appropriate box to indicate which type of tract is being referred to.

The meninges is a three-layered, membranous covering of the brain and spinal cord. Read the descriptions below and then click and drag them into the appropriate box based on whether they pertain to the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, or the pia mater.

Read each description below and determine whether it pertains to the blood-brain barrier, the blood-CSF barrier, or both. Then click and drag each box into the appropriate category below.

Olfactory (cranial nerve: I)

Smell

Optic (cranial nerve: II)

Visual activity

Oculomotor (cranial nerve: III)

Pupil constriction

Trochlear (cranial nerve: IV)

Inferno-lateral movement of the eye

Trigeminal (cranial nerve: V)

Chewing

Abducens (cranial nerve: VI)

Lateral movement of the eye

Facial (cranial nerve: VII)

Motor for muscles of facial expression

Vestibulocochlear (cranial nerve: VIII)

Hearing

Glossopharyngeal (cranial nerve: IX)

Pain sensation on the tongue

Vagus (cranial nerve: X)

Inhibits cardiac muscle

Accessory (cranial nerve: XI)

Elevation of the scapulae

Hypoglossal (cranial nerve: XII)

tongue movement

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the surface of the brain.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the surface of the brain.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the surface of the brain.

Correctly label the following meninges of the brain.

Correctly label the following parts of the brainstem.

Correctly label the following figure representing the reticular formation.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the cerebellum and nearby structures.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the cerebellum.

Correctly label the following structures of the limbic system.

Correctly label the following functional regions of the cerebral cortex.

Consider a situation where a stroke or mechanical trauma has occurred resulting in damage to one of the areas of the brain indicated in the image. Drag each label into the proper location in order to identify the area that would most likely have been affected.

Drag each of the given signs and symptoms of nerve damage to the proper position to indicate the nerve most likely affected by the condition.

Drag each label to identify the bony passageway through which the given nerve fibers pass.

Which of the following structures consists mainly of white matter?

Corpus callosum

Click and drag each label on the left to its correct position on the right.

Click and drag each label on the left to its correct position on the right.

Click and drag each label on the left to its correct position on the right.

Click and drag each label on the left to its correct position on the right.

Click and drag each label from the top to its correct position relative to the image.

Which of the following is not a type of brain wave?

Omega waves

Click and drag each label from above to its correct position on the illustration below.

Correctly label the following functional regions of the cerebral cortex.

Which of the following is the prominent C-shaped fiber tract that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres?

Corpus callosum

The cerebral aqueduct passes CSF down the core of the midbrain and into which of the following?

Fourth ventricle

The tegmentum, substantia nigra, and cerebral crus are all found in which part of the midbrain?

Cerebral peduncles

Spatial perception and the recognition of familiar objects require activity in which of the following cortical regions?

Visual association areas

The mesencephalon develops into which of the following?

Midbrain

Parasympathetic

Digesting, defecation, and diuresis.

Sympathetic

Running, stress, excitement, and fight-or-flight

Also known as the _________________ division, the parasympathetic nervous system has fibers exiting the CNS at the medulla oblongata.

1. craniosacral

Action potentials travel down the preganglionic nerve fibers of the ________________, towards the effector organs.

2. vagus nerve

These impulses arrive at the cardiac plexus where secretion of acetylcholine creates an action potential in ___________________the neuron.

3. postganglionic

The impulse arrives relatively quickly at the heart, as parasympathetic postganglionic fibers are ____________ compared to sympathetic postganglionic fibers.

4. short

Action potentials arriving at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes of the heart cause _____________________to be released.

5. acetylcholine

This parasympathetic neurotransmitter causes a ________________ in heart rate and contractility.

6. decrease

Also known as the _____________________ division, the sympathetic nervous system exits the CNS via the spinal nerves from T1-L2.

1. thoracolumbar

Action potentials travel along the preganglionic nerve fiber and enter the _________________________________.

2. sympathetic chain ganglion

Fibers exiting the sympathetic chain ganglia, take one of three routes: the spinal nerve route, the sympathetic nerve route, and the __________________nerve route.

3. splanchnic

Arriving at target cells, _________________________ nerve fibers release acetylcholine or norepinephrine into the synaptic cleft.

4. postganglionic

The effect of norepinephrine binding to _________________receptors stimulates cardiac muscle cells.

5. adrenergic

Releases norepinephrine to the heart

Sympathetic

Active during physical stress

Sympathetic

Increases the amount of air entering the alveoli of the lungs

Sympathetic

Maintains blood pressure

Sympathetic

Results in decreased urine production

Sympathetic

Associated with reduced energy expenditure

Parasympathetic

Decreases the frequency of impulses initiated by the sinoatrial node of the heart

Parasympathetic

Stimulates the smooth muscles of the digestive tract

Parasympathetic

Identify which anatomical component each label describes by clicking and dragging it to its correct position on the image.

The digestive tract has a nervous system of its own called the _________ nervous system.

enteric

Emotions can invoke autonomic responses

Cerebral cortex

Sexual thoughts or images can increase blood flow to the genitals

Cerebral cortex

It activates the fight-or-flight response

Hypothalamus

It’s the major control center of the ANS

Hypothalamus

It’s the integrating center for thermoregulation

Hypothalamus

It’s the integrating center for the pupillary reflex

Brainstem

It’s the integrating center for urination, defecation, erection, and ejaculation reflexes

Spinal cord

Voluntary

Somatic

Skeletal muscle activation

Somatic

Principally involved with movement "of" the body

Somatic

Involuntary

Autonomic

Lacriminal gland activation

Autonomic

Intestinal smooth muscle activation

Autonomic

Principally involved with movement of materials through the body

Autonomic

Sweat gland activation

Autonomic

Piloerector muscle activation

Autonomic

Can be excitatory or inhibitory on the target organ

Autonomic

Requires two neurons from the CNS to the effector organ

Autonomic

Utilizes acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters

Autonomic

Presence of pre- and post- ganglionic neurons

Autonomic

CNS somas are located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord

Autonomic

Only requires one neuron from the CNS to the effector organ

Somatic

Associated with voluntary motor neurons

Somatic

Associated with sensory receptors for touch

Somatic

Which of the following structure(s) is/are associated with the sympathetic nervous system? Check all that apply.

The adrenal medulla The thoracolumbar spinal chord The pineal gland

Increased heart rate

Sympathetic

Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle

Sympathetic

Reduced urinary output

Sympathetic

Increased pulmonary airflow

Sympathetic

Fight or flight

Sympathetic

Activation of digestive organs

Parasympathetic

Storage of energy

Parasympathetic

Decreased pulmonary airflow

Parasympathetic

Urinary bladder wall contraction

Parasympathetic

Rest and digest

Parasympathetic

Which nervous system controls glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle?

Autonomic

Which regions of the CNS does the parasympathetic division of the ANS arise from? Check all that apply.

Thoracic spinal cord

In the __________ division of the ANS the preganglionic nerve fibers are short, while in the __________ division the preganglionic fibers are relatively long.

Sympathetic, parasympathetic

Correctly label the anatomical elements of the projection pathways for pain.

Identify the visceral origin of referred pain on each region of the male below.

Correctly label the anatomical elements of the tongue.

Correctly identify the following anatomical features of the olfactory receptors.

Correctly identify the following structures of the cochlea.

Correctly label the anatomical features of the otolithic membrane.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the semicircular canals.

Correctly identify the following accessory structures of the eye.

Correctly label the structures associated with the lacrimal apparatus.

Correctly identify the following extrinsic muscles of the eyeball.

Correctly identify the following extrinsic muscles of the eyeball.

Correctly identify the following extrinsic muscles of the eyeball.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the eye.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the eye.

Correctly identify the following structures of the eye.

Correctly identify the following parts of the retina.

Correctly identify the following parts of a rod and a cone.

Correctly label the following structures on a rod.

Place the following into the correct order to represent the bleaching and regeneration of rhodopsin.

Drag each label to the appropriate position to classify the tongue region addressed by the label.

A structure composed of nervous tissue along with other tissues that enhance its response to a certain type of stimulus is called a(n) __________.

sense organ

Which of the following are examples of the kind of information obtained from sensory receptors? Check all that apply.

none are checked

Which of the following statements are true regarding olfaction? Check all that apply.

none are checked

Which of the following statements are true regarding gustation? Check all that apply.

none are checked

As the number of cycles per second increases, the sound we perceive __________.

gets higher

Which of the following is a true statement regarding photoreceptors? Check all that apply.

none are checked

The three types of cones are differentiated by their __________.

absorption peak

Correctly label the anatomical elements of a taste bud.

Correctly identify the following anatomical features of the olfactory receptors.

Correctly identify the following structures of the cochlea.

What information does the brain use to determine the intensity of a stimulus? Check all that apply.

none are checked

Most encapsulated nerve endings are which of the following?

Mechanoreceptors

Which of the following are tonic receptors? Check all that apply.

none are checked

Louder sounds are caused by vibrations with which of the following characteristics?

Larger amplitudes

Which of the following are types of photoreceptor cells? Check all that apply.

none are checked

Correctly label the following structures related to the parathyroid gland.

Named for the effect on gamete production

FSH

Names means "against urine"

ADH

Name means "near the thyroid"

PTH

Named for directly affecting the thyroid

TSH

Named for the number of iodine molecules in the hormone

T3

Name means "promoting milk production"

PRL

Named for causing the release of hormone affecting the gonads

GnRH

Named for stimulating the cortex of the adrenal gland

ACTH

Named for producing the conversion of the follicle into a corpus luteum

LH

Named for causing the release of ACTH

CRH

Which of the following is not a process that is stimulated by glucocorticoid hormones?

Maturation of ovarian follicles

Glucocorticoids are __________ hormones secreted by __________ glands.

steroid; endocrine

Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur during glucocorticoid hormone action.
1. Binding of hormone to receptor
2. Release of HSP90 proteins
3. Entry of hormone into the nucleus

1, 2, 3

Steroid hormones bind to ____________ of the target cell.

protein receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus

The steroid hormone-receptor complex binds to __________.

hormone response elements in DNA

The mode of action of steroid hormones involves __________.

stimulation of mRNA transcription

Match the hormone abbreviations with their function.

1. LH 2. TRH 3. ADH 4. PRL 5. ACTH

The endocrine system is comprised of __________ that secrete hormones.

All of the choices are correct.

The hypothalamus controls the posterior pituitary by way of __________.

neuroendocrine reflexes

Target organs regulate the pituitary through feedback loops. Most often, this is in the form of __________.

negative feedback inhibition

Most hormones are taken up and degraded by the __________ and __________.

liver; kidney

The rate of hormone removal is called the __________, and the length of time required to clear 50% of the hormone from the blood is the __________.

metabolic clearance rate; half-life

When cells cannot absorb glucose, they must get their energy someplace else, and in turn they metabolize fat and protein. In time, this leads to __________.

a condition called ketoacidosis, causing deep, gasping breathing

Inadequate hormone release is called hyposecretion. It can result from __________.

All of the choices are correct.

Match the disease with its homeostatic imbalance.

1. Cushing Syndrome 2. Myxedema 3. Pheochromocytoma 4. Graves disease 5. Addison disease 6. Hyperparathyroidism

Correctly label the following glands of the endocrine system.

Correctly label the following areas of the thoracic cavity in the newborn and the adult.

Correctly label the following gross anatomy of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.

Correctly label the following parts of the adrenal gland.

Correctly label the following histological components of this gland.

Correctly label the histological anatomy of this gland.

Correctly label the following gross anatomy of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.

Which glands secrete their product by way of a duct directly onto an epithelial surface?

Exocrine

Which hormone stimulates sperm production?

Follicle stimulating hormone

Which pituitary hormone reduces urine volume and increases blood volume?

Antidiuretic hormone

Which gland is thought to play a role in establishing 24-hour circadian rhythms?

Pineal gland

Which adrenal cortical hormone helps maintain blood pressure and blood volume?

Aldosterone

Which pancreatic cells secrete insulin?

Beta cells

What effect does thyroid hormone have on the body’s metabolic rate?

It increases it.

Which of the following defines hormone specificity?

Each receptor binds to only one hormone.

Similar to neurotransmitters, hormones exert their action only on cells that have specific __________ that the hormones bind to.

receptors

Correctly identify the following formed elements.

Correctly label the parts of centrifuged blood.

Plasma

Glucose Chloride Antibodies Fibrinogen Hormones

Formed elements

Erythrocytes Leukocytes Platelets Monocytes Neutrophils

Transportation

Movement of O2 to the tissues of the body

Transportation

Movement of CO2 from tissues to the lungs

Transportation

Distribution of hormones

Transportation

Movement of urea to the kidneys

Transportation

Distribution of absorbed nutrients throughout the body

Regulation

Bicarbonate buffers acids and bases

Regulation

Vasoconstriction and vasodilation due to temperature changes

Erythrocyte

Transportation of respiratory gases

Lymphocyte

Differentiate into cells that produce antibodies

Lymphocyte

Include memory cell lines

Lymphocyte

Destroy cancerous and virally infected cells

Neutrophil

Increase in number during bacterial infections

Basophil

Vasodilatory and anticoagulatory function

Basophil

Vitally important initiators of the inflammatory response

Eosinophil

Increase in number during parasitic infections

Monocyte

Involved with immune clearance

Monocyte

Differentiate into dendrite cells and tissue macrophages

Match each formed element name or description with its corresponding image.

Increase

Erythrocytes: high altitude

Increase

Erythrocytes: long term hyproxia

Increase

B lymphocytes: influenza infection

Increase

Basophils: chronic asthma

Increase

Eosinophils: tapeworm infection

Relatively No Change

Erythrocytes: acute viral infection

Decrease

Erythrocytes: dietary iron deficiency

Decrease

Erythrocytes: erythropoietin hyposecretion

Decrease

Erythrocytes: declining intrinsic factor

Decrease

Erythrocytes: acute, profuse hemorrhage

Compatible

O- given to A+

Compatible

B- given to AB+

Compatible

O- given to O+

Not Compatible

A+ given to O-

Not Compatible

AB- given to A+

Not Compatible

AB+ given to O-

Not Compatible

AB- given to O+

Not Compatible

AB- given to B-

Not Compatible

B+ given to A+

Type AB+

Expresses all of the major antigens

Type AB+

The least common U.S. blood type

Type AB+

The universal acceptor

Type AB+

Expresses the A agglutinogen

Type O-

Expresses all of the major antibodies

Type O-

The universal donor

Type O-

The most common U.S. blood type

Type O-

Expresses the B agglutinin

Vascular Spasm

The first stage in hemostasis

Vascular Spasm

Involves vasoconstriction

Platelet Plug Formation

The second stage in hemostasis

Platelet Plug Formation

Involves the disruption of prostacyclin

Platelet Plug Formation

Involves endothelial collagen exposure

Platelet Plug Formation

Involves degranulation and serotonin, thromboxane A2 and ADP

Coagulation

The last stage in hemostasis

Coagulation

Also known as clotting

Coagulation

Involves the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Coagulation

Includes intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms

Improved through Erythropoesis

Sickle cell disease Hemolysis Hypoxia Anemia Hemorrhage

Improved through Leukopoesis

Leukopenia

Not Improved Through Either

-Leukemia -Hematology -Primary Polycythemia -Secondary polycythemia

Place the following formed elements in order of abundance in a normal blood sample, beginning with the most numerous.

1. Erythrocytes 2. Platelets 3. Leukocytes (Total) 4. Neutrophils 5. Lymphocytes 6. Monocytes 7. Eosinophils 8. Basophils

In the breakdown of hemoglobin, the globin chains __________.

are broken down by macrophages into amino acids

In the breakdown of hemoglobin, the iron __________.

is transported by transferring to the liver, spleen, and bone marrow

Which of the following is the correct sequence in the breakdown of the non-iron portion of the heme?

Heme, biliverdin, bilirubin, conjugated bilirubin, bilirubin derivatives, feces and urine

What are the components of the circulatory system?

Heart, blood vessels, and blood

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the composition of plasma. Check all that apply.

none are checked

Viscosity

The resistance of a fluid to flow

Viscosity

it is the thickness or stickiness of a fluid

Viscosity

It results from the cohesion of fluid’s particles

Viscosity

If it is too high, the blood flows too sluggishly

Osmolarity

Absorption between the bloodstream and tissue fluid is governed by it.

Osmolarity

Transfer of fluids is a balance between filtration from the capillary and re-absorption.

Osmolarity

If it is too high, the blood stream absorbs too much water, raising the blood pressure

Viscosity and osmolarity will both increase if the amount of ____________ in the blood increases.

erythrocytes and protein

Choose the correct statement regarding the function of platelets.

They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting.

Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets?

They inhibit procoagulants.

Repulsion

It occurs when blood vessels are undamaged

Repulsion

Prostacyclin coats the vessel walls

Dilution

Normal rates of blood flow account for it

Dilution

Circulatory shock interferes with it

Anticoagulants

Antithrombin deactivates thrombin before it can act on fibrinogen

Anticoagulants

Heparin interferes with the formation of prothrombin activatior

Anticoagulants

Heparin blocks the action of thrombin on fibrinogen

Anticoagulants

Heparin promotes the actin of antithrombin

In healthy blood vessels, platelets do not adhere because the smooth endothelium is coated with ______________.

prostacyclin

Which of the following correctly describe hemophilia? Check all that apply.

none are checked

What are the two principal functions of erythrocytes?

To pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver it to tissues and to pick up carbon dioxide from the tissues and unload it in the lungs

Which of the following characteristics of a red blood cell increases its ability to carry oxygen to the tissues? Check all that apply.

none of them are checked

Choose the statement(s) that describe(s) hemolytic disease of the newborn. Check all that apply.

none of them are checked

Identify the correct statement regarding leukocytes.

Leukocytes spend only a few hours in the bloodstream, then migrate through the walls of the capillaries.

Primary Polycythemia

Due to cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow

Pernicious Anemia

Occurs when stomach glands fail to produce intrinsic factor

Iron Deficiency Anemia

Usually caused by blood loss without sufficient compensatory iron ingestion

Thalassemia

A deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin

Secondary Polycythemia

Can result from dehydration

Sickle Cell Disease

Caused by a recessive allele that modifies the hemoglobin beta chain

Septicemia

Bacteria in the blood stream

Thrombocytopenia

A platelet count below 100,000/mL

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

Widespread clotting within unbroken vessels

Thalassemia

A deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin

Infectious mononucleosis

Infection of B lymphocytes with Epstein-Barr virus

RBC count

The total number of red blood cells in the blood

Hemoglobin Concentration

The measure of the concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of packed red blood cells

Hematocrit

The percentage of whole blood volume composed of RBCs

Leukopenia

A total WBC count below 5,000 WBC/microliter

Leukemia

Cancer that produces a high number of circulating leukocytes and their precursors

Myeloid Leukemia

Marked by uncontrolled granulocyte production

Lymphoid Leukemia

Involves uncontrolled lymphocyte or monocyte production

Leukocytosis

A total WBC count above 10,000 WBCs/microliter

Acute Leukemia

Appears suddenly, progresses rapidly, death within months

Chronic Leukemia

Develops more slowly and may go undetected for many months

Neutrophils

60%-70%

Monocytes

3%-8%

Lymphocytes

25%-33%

Basophils

< 0.5%

Eosinophils

2%-4%

Plasma transports which of the following? Check all that apply.

None of them are checked

How many heme groups are there in each hemoglobin molecule?

4

Identify each of the heart valves.

Identify each component of the electrical conduction system of the heart.

Place each label representing a specific electrical event on the appropriate region of the ECG.

Click on the region of the ECG image below that aligns with the electrical changes related to atrial repolarization.

Correctly label the following anatomical features of the heart and thoracic cage.

Correctly label the following structures related to the position of the heart in the thorax.

Correctly label the following parts of the pericardium and the heart walls

Correctly label the following external anatomy of the anterior heart.

Correctly label the following vessels leading from and toward the anterior heart.

Correctly label the following vessels leading from and toward the anterior heart.

Correctly label the following external anatomy of the anterior heart.

Correctly label the following external anatomy of the posterior heart.

Correctly label the following external anatomy of the posterior heart.

Correctly label the following internal anatomy of the heart.

Correctly label the following internal anatomy of the heart.

Correctly label the following internal anatomy of the heart.

Correctly sequence the pathway of blood flow through the heart, beginning with the venae cavae.

Correctly label the following coronary blood vessels of the heart.

Correctly label the following coronary blood vessels of the heart.

Correctly label the pathway for the cardiac conduction system.

Drag each label into the appropriate position to identify the waves of a normal ECG.

Drag each label into the appropriate position to identify the segments and intervals of a normal ECG.

Heart sound __________ is thought to result from the transition from expansion of the empty ventricles to their sudden filling with blood.

S3

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output?

HR x SV

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output?

None of these choices are correct

As exercise progresses, muscular activity __________ venous return. This increases the __________ on the right ventricle.

increases; preload

Identify the unique structural characteristics of cardiac muscle.

Which circuit carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange and returns it to the left atrium of the heart?

Pulmonary

What is the broad flat superior top portion of the heart called?

Base

What is the double layered sac that surrounds the heart called?

Pericardium

What are the thick inferior chambers of the heart that pump blood into the arteries called?

Ventricles

The passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles is regulated by which valves?

Atrioventricular

What is the ability to rhythmically depolarize without outside stimulation called?

Autorhythmic

Which term refers to relaxation of the heart?

Diastole

As a heart chamber contracts, what happens to the pressure of the fluid within it?

It increases.