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11) The chest is ________ to the abdomen. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7-8
4 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
12) The sternal region is ________ to the scapular region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7-8
13) The knee is ________ to the foot. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
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Ref:7-8
14) The brain is ________ to the skull. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
15) The thumb is ________ to the index finger. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:7-8
16) Muscles are ________ to the skin. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: E Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:7-8
5 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
17) The axillary region is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7-8
18) The lip is ________ to the chin. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:7-8
19) The eye is ________ to the occipital region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
20) The acromial region is ________ to the scapular region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:7-8
21) The gluteal region is ________ to the popliteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
6 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
22) The femoral region is ________ to the plantar region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:7-8
23) The heart is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
24) The pubic area is ________ to the gluteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
25) The umbilical region is ________ to the lumbar region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior
D) proximal E) deep
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
26) The smallest living unit is A) a cell. B) an organ. C) a human being.
D) a molecule.
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:3
7 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
27) Which branch of anatomy studies the structural changes that occur as one ages? A) developmental anatomy B) pathological anatomy C) regional anatomy
D) surface anatomy
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:2
28) Which organ system includes the pancreas, thymus, testes, and pituitary gland? A) integumentary B) endocrine C) reproductive
D) lymphatic
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:3 &5
29) A coronal section through the human body can A) pass through both the nose and the occipital region. B) pass through both ears. C) provide mirror right and left images. D) lie in a horizontal plane.
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7, 9
30) During the process of ________, noncellular artifacts can be introduced into histology samples. A) time B) observation
C) staining D) photography
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:14
31) The cervical region is the A) thigh. B) calf. C) neck.
D) head.
|
Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:7
8 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
32) The "CT" in "CT scanning" stands for A) cut transversely. B) Charles Thorgaard, the inventor’s name. C) correlated thickness.
D) computed tomography.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:16
33) What is the function of serous membranes? A) They act like wrapping paper to hold visceral organs together. B) They contain gland cells that secrete mucus. C) They halt the spread of infection. D) They reduce friction so that viscera move freely.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:12
34) The dorsal hollow nerve cord A) develops into the brain and spinal cord. B) is a primitive supporting rod. C) contains the notochord. D) is the same as the human backbone.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:10
35) The main purpose of fixation is A) to preserve the tissue. B) to mend breaks in tissue sections. C) to make an organ easier to section. D) to stick tissue sections to a glass slide.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:14
36) A histologist examines a specimen that has an epithelium overlying some smooth muscle. This specimen is part of A) a molecule. B) a cell.
C) a tissue. D) an organ.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:5
9 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
37) An example of a tissue in the body is A) the stomach. B) a muscle cell. C) epithelium.
D) a macromolecule.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:4
38) An example of an organ is A) a fat cell. B) the intestine. C) epithelium.
D) the cardiovascular system (but not the circulatory system).
|
Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:5
39) Which organ system consists of vessels that do not carry blood, but pick up fluids (and some cells) that are leaked from the blood? A) urinary B) endocrine
C) integumentary D) lymphatic
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:4-5
40) Large molecules such as proteins are called A) cells. B) macromolecules. C) multi-atom units.
D) cellular organelles.
|
Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:4
41) Which organ system covers the external surface of the body, but not the internal surface of the mouth? A) lymphatic B) digestive
C) integumentary D) cutaneous
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:4-5
10 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
42) Which organ system includes the spinal cord? A) skeletal B) muscular C) nervous
D) integumentary
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:4-5
43) The height of an average person’s trunk, from neck to perineum, is about A) 5 meters. B) 10 centimeters. C) 1000 μm.
D) 1 meter.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:3
44) Which statement concerning the anatomical position is FALSE? A) The palms face anteriorly. B) The toes point anteriorly, but the fingers point inferiorly. C) The knees, elbow, and neck are straight (not bent).
D) The person is lying down, as straight as possible.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:6
45) Bilateral symmetry can apply to objects as well as to animal bodies. Which of the following capital letters of the alphabet is not bilaterally symmetrical? A) A B) M
C) L D) O
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:10
46) Which structure is not covered by visceral serosa? A) lungs B) ribs C) stomach
D) uterus
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:12
11 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
47) The femoral region is the A) buttocks. B) hip. C) thigh.
D) toes.
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:7
48) The inguinal region lies A) anterior to the elbow joint. B) on the anterior neck. C) where the thigh joins the trunk. D) on the external genitals.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7
49) The perineal region is the A) side of the leg. B) region between the external genitals and the anus. C) point of the shoulder. D) superior part of the gluteal region.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7
50) Which structure is not present in the mediastinum? A) esophagus B) heart C) lung
D) trachea
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:11
51) A frontal plane is the same as a ________ plane. A) midsagittal B) transverse C) coronal
D) sagittal
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7, 9
52) Another name for the midsagittal plane is A) parasagittal. B) oblique. C) coronal.
D) median.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7
12 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
53) What point or structure in the body is located farthest laterally? (Hint: Questions always refer to the body in the anatomical position.) A) the coxal region B) ear
C) little toe D) tip of thumb
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:7-8
54) Although transmission electron microscopy is usually used for high-magnification viewing, it is certainly possible to use it at low magnification as well. That is, one can produce similar micrographs of tissues taken by light microscopy and electron microscopy at the same magnification. Even at the same magnification, however, you can easily tell the two kinds of micrographs apart. How?
A) The image in the electron micrograph is still sharper. B) Tissue viewed by electron microscopy is colored, whereas light micrographs are always black and white (and shades of gray). C) Tissue for light microscopy cannot be fixed (no fixation). D) Tissue for electron microscopy cannot be sectioned.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:14
55) What is the main advantage of MRI as a medical imaging technique? A) It is safe. B) The patient feels less pain during the procedure than with any other imaging technique. C) It is very inexpensive. D) It shows soft tissues very clearly.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:18
56) The extremities are the same as A) the ears. B) the fingers and toes. C) the limbs.
D) all structures in the head.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7
57) Which of the following pairs of organs/structures is located ipsilateral? A) cecum : sigmoid colon B) descending colon : spleen C) mouth : navel
D) right lung : left lung
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:8
13 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
58) A physician viewing an injury to the back would look at the patient’s ________ side. A) lateral B) posterior C) cranial
D) ventral
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:8
59) The ________ body cavity contains the brain. A) dorsal B) ventral C) serous
D) lateral
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:11
60) The roots of anatomical terminology lie mainly in A) German and French. B) Latin and Greek. C) Esperanto.
D) Russian and Old English.
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:6
61) The ________ cavity contains the heart and lungs. A) abdominopelvic B) dorsal C) thoracic
D) lateral
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:11
62) Hormones are regulatory proteins that are secreted by the ________ system. A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary
D) lymphatic
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:4-5
14 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
63) Which organ system keeps blood constantly supplied with oxygen, removes carbon dioxide, and contains many air tubes? A) urinary B) endocrine
C) circulatory D) respiratory
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:4-5
64) The elimination of nitrogenous wastes from body fluids is regulated by the ________ system. A) urinary B) endocrine
C) integumentary D) lymphatic
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:4-5
65) Which structures are evidence of the vertebrate characteristic of segmentation? A) branches of the blood vessels B) multiple joints of fingers C) subdivisions of the gastrointestinal tract
D) vertebral column
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:11
66) Which statement about visceral serosa is false? A) It clings to the surface of organs. B) It is continuous with the membrane that covers the outer body wall. C) It is deep to the parietal serosa. D) It lines the internal surface of hollow organs.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:12
67) How many centimeters are there in a meter? A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000
D) 1,000,000
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:6
15 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
68) Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity? A) heart B) liver C) spinal cord
D) urinary bladder
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:11
69) The ankle lies ________ to the thigh. A) distal B) proximal C) lateral
D) inferior
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:8
70) The axillary artery is found in the region of the A) posterior surface of the knee. B) vertebral column. C) armpit.
D) long axis of any limb.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:7
71) As an anatomical region, lumbar refers to A) the infero-medial aspect of the back. B) part of the lower limb. C) the wrist.
D) the breast.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
72) The buccal region is the A) cheeks. B) waist. C) calf of the leg.
D) underside of the foot.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:7
73) The popliteal region is A) the side of the leg. B) in the cervical region. C) the posterior surface of the knee. D) the inferior part of the gluteal region.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
16 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
74) The coxal region is A) the same as the inguinal region. B) the skin over the "tailbone." C) the hip. D) the posterior surface of the wrist.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
75) Which structure is located entirely within the right upper quadrant? A) appendix B) gallbladder C) spleen
D) stomach
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:13
1.2 True/False Questions
1) Serous cavities include the pleural cavity.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
|
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Ref:12
2) Serous cavities contain air.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:12
3) The peritoneal cavity is a serous cavity.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:12
4) EM has much greater resolution than LM.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:14
5) The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into a cranial cavity and a vertebral cavity.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:11
6) Pathological anatomy deals with structural changes caused by disease.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:2
7) A CT scan produces an image of a transverse section of the body.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:16-17
17 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
8) MRI techniques can show only images that are hard and deflect the X-rays.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:18
9) Ultrasound techniques are used to image a fetus because they are less damaging than other techniques.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:18
10) Angiography imaging is used primarily in the study of blood supply to the heart wall and brain.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:17
11) Most adults are between 1.5 and 2 meters tall.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:6
12) All vertebrate embryos have a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:10
13) A transverse plane could cut the head off the body!
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7, 9
14) In anatomical position, the palms of the hands face medially toward the thighs.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:6
15) The mediastinum contains the trachea and lungs.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:11
1.3 Short
|
Answer Questions 1) Describe the terms proximal and distal. \Answer: Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the main part of the body; distal is farther from the point of attachment. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:8
2) Describe the location of the femoral region in relation to the crural region.
|
Answer: The femoral region is proximal to the crural region. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
18 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
3) Describe the location of the brachial region in relation to the pollex.
|
Answer: The brachial region is proximal to the pollex. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7-8
4) In humans, what term is synonymous with posterior?
|
Answer: dorsal Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:8
5) Clinicians refer to ________ anatomy when locating blood vessels to draw blood, feeling pulses, and avoiding nerves while giving injections.
|
Answer: surface Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:2
6) In humans, the region between the anus and the external genitals is the ________ region.
|
Answer: perineal Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:7
7) The olecranal region is posterior to what region?
|
Answer: antecubital Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
8) The head, neck, and trunk comprise the ________ region.
|
Answer: axial Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
9) What is the anatomical term for the thumb?
|
Answer: pollex Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7
10) One could say that the forearm is ________ to the brachial region.
|
Answer: distal Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:8
11) Cutting the body along the median plane produces a ________ section
|
Answer: midsagittal Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:7, 9
12) One could describe the scalp as being ________ to the skull.
|
Answer: superficial Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:8
13) A ________ plane separates the body into equal left and right halves.
|
Answer: midsagittal (or median) Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:7, 9
19 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
14) The measurement typically used for structures within a cell is the ________.
|
Answer: micrometer Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:6
15) The ________ system is involved in immunity.
|
Answer: lymphatic Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:4-5
11) Which category of tissue is characterized by cells that have adhesion proteins and specialized cell-to-cell junctions? A) muscle B) nervous
C) connective D) epithelial
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:74
12) Which major category of tissues has the most diverse and most numerous types of tissue? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:77
13) Histologists consider blood to be an example of what primary tissue category? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:77
4 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
14) Cells lining the digestive tube are characteristic of this tissue category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:67
15) Pseudostratified columnar is one of the tissues of this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:67
16) Which major tissue category includes tissues that function in secretion, absorption, and filtration? A) muscle B) nervous
C) connective D) epithelial
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:65-66
17) Bone and cartilage are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:77
18) Which tissue category contains tissues comprised of cells containing myofilaments? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:93
5 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
19) The primary contractile tissue of the heart characterizes tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:93
20) This tissue type, in addition to certain muscle tissues, is capable of generating electrical impulses. A) muscle B) nervous
C) connective D) epithelial
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:95
21) Ligaments are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:86
22) The brain and spinal cord are composed primarily of this tissue type. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:95
23) This type of tissue includes smooth and cardiac. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:93
6 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
24) Tissues in this category are characterized by an extracellular matrix that holds some amount of fluid. A) muscle B) nervous
C) connective D) epithelial
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:78
25) Adipocytes are found in tissues belonging to this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective
D) epithelial
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:81
26) Which of the following is not associated with connective tissue? A) areolar B) collagen C) goblet cells
D) chondrocytes
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:73
27) The major function of stratified squamous epithelium is A) diffusion. B) absorption. C) filtration.
D) protection from abrasion.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:65, 72
28) Simple squamous epithelia would not provide A) protection from abrasion. B) diffusion. C) filtration.
D) secretion.
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:67
7 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
29) What do goblet cells secrete? A) enzymes B) histamine C) mucin
D) antibodies
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:73
30) A structure that secretes hormones into the blood is A) a plasma cell. B) a goblet cell. C) an endocrine gland.
D) an exocrine gland.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:72
31) Of the types of lining and covering membranes, the only one that is drier than the others is A) cutaneous. B) serous. C) mucous.
D) parietal.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:89
32) The difference between a basal lamina and a basement membrane is that A) the basal lamina is thicker. B) they lie on opposite surfaces of the epithelium. C) a basal lamina plus a layer of reticular fibers equals a basement membrane. D) only the basal lamina can be seen by light microscopy.
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:76
33) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelia? A) highly cellular with little extracellular matrix B) innervated C) specialized cell-cell junctions
D) vascular
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:66
34) Which of the following provides the least resistance to diffusion? A) simple columnar epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple squamous epithelium
D) stratified squamous epithelium
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:67
8 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
35) The major function of pseudostratified columnar epithelium is A) secretion. B) filtration. C) protection.
D) absorption.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:72
36) A type of connective tissue that is not a connective tissue proper is A) dense irregular connective tissue. B) areolar tissue. C) adipose tissue.
D) cartilage.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:79
37) A stratified epithelium that thins and flattens as the tissue stretches is a A) pseudostratified epithelium. B) stratified cuboidal epithelium. C) stratified squamous epithelium.
D) transitional epithelium.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:71-72
38) Only one type of fiber in connective tissue can be stretched and then recoil—return to its original length and shape. This fiber is the
|
Answer: elastic fiber. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:80
39) A highly branched gland whose walls do not balloon into spherical sacs is called A) compound alveolar. B) compound tubular. C) compound tubuloalveolar.
D) simple branched alveolar.
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:73-74
40) Which one of the following basic types of tissues functions to control the body? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle
D) nervous
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:93-95
9 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
41) Which one of the following basic types of tissues has an extracellular matrix? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle
D) nervous
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:78
42) Which one of the following basic types of tissues functions as a covering tissue for the body? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle
D) nervous
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:65
43) An epithelium in which the basal layer of cells is cuboidal and the apical layer has cells that are thin, flat and irregular in shaper is a ________ epithelium. A) stratified squamous B) simple columnar
C) stratified cuboidal D) simple cuboidal
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:72
44) The thinnest type of epithelium is A) simple squamous. B) pseudostratified columnar. C) stratified squamous.
D) stratified columnar.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:67
45) Microvilli can perform all of the following functions except A) enhance the rate of absorption. B) enhance the rate of secretion. C) moving and propelling fluids.
D) anchoring mucus.
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:76
10 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
46) The type of cell junction that permits small sugar molecules and ions to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to that of another is a A) tight junction. B) gap junction.
C) desmosome. D) zonula occludens.
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:76
47) Ligaments consist primarily of which kind of connective tissue? A) loose areolar B) dense irregular C) cartilage
D) dense regular
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:86
48) In connective tissue proper, ground substance is manufactured and secreted by which type of cell? A) fibroblast B) endothelial cell
C) chondroblasts D) osteocytes
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:78-79
49) Use logic to deduce which of the following tissues is on the anterior surface of a person’s eyeball. A) epithelial B) connective
C) muscle D) nervous
|
Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:66
50) The distinguishing characteristic between tight junctions and adherens junctions is that A) adherens junctions attach to the actin myofilaments of the cytoskeleton, whereas tight junctions do not. B) adherens junctions involve integral membrane proteins, whereas tight junctions do not. C) tight junctions are present near apical lateral borders, whereas adherens junctions are located near basal lateral borders.
D) tight junctions involve fusion of proteins on adjacent cells, whereas adherens junctions create tunnels between adjacent cells.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:74-75
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51) Connective tissue that must resist forces pulling it from many different directions without stretching would most likely be A) areolar connective tissue. B) dense irregular connective tissue.
C) dense regular connective tissue. D) reticular connective tissues.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:84
52) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the inflammatory response? A) attacks and eliminates specific foreign molecules B) involves release of chemicals that cause local vasodilation C) occurs within connective tissue
D) results in edema and delivery of chemicals needed for repair
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:95-97
53) Glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans are components of A) blood. B) inflammation. C) ground substance.
D) reticular fibers.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:80-81
54) It might be argued that all the defense mechanisms in areolar connective tissue act to prevent infection from reaching which other tissue type? A) bone B) epithelium
C) blood D) muscle
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:81
55) Despite their name, many types of cell junction are not very strong at joining and holding cells together. The cell junctions that best keep cells from being pulled apart are A) tight junctions. B) gap junctions.
C) desmosomes. D) zonula occludens.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:75
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56) Fat is a form of ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle
D) nervous
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:79
57) During repair of a scrape or cut through the skin, a blood clot is replaced with collagen-rich granulation tissue in a process called A) inflammation. B) organization.
C) repair. D) regeneration.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:97
58) All lining and covering membranes consist of A) an epithelium only. B) a serosa. C) an epithelium, a connective tissue, and smooth muscle. D) epithelium and connective tissue.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
59) Inflamed tissue is often warm to the touch because of A) accumulation of bacterial toxins. B) increased blood flow to the area. C) infiltration by neutrophils.
D) leakage of clotting proteins.
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:95-97
60) The best definition of fibrosis is A) the production of collagen fibers. B) the production of elastic fibers. C) the formation of dense regular connective tissue. D) the formation of scar tissue.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:97
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61) Cancer can arise from each of the following except A) induced apoptosis. B) exposure to a carcinogen. C) inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene.
D) turning on of oncogenes.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:99
62) In connective tissue, extracellular matrix is not exactly the same as ground substance, because the matrix also contains A) fibers. B) cells.
C) an epithelium. D) blood.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:80
63) When cells from a cancerous tumor travel to other parts of the body, this process is called A) carcinogenesis. B) malignancy. C) metastasis.
D) transformation.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:99
64) A muscle fiber is A) the same as a collagen fiber that is viewed by electron microscopy. B) part of a striation of a muscle cell. C) a muscle cell. D) an intercalated disc.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:93
65) Of the following, the tissue with the greatest capacity for regeneration is A) skeletal muscle. B) neurons. C) epithelium.
D) smooth muscle.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:66
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66) Cartilage is a form of ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle
D) nervous
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:79
67) A common example of a unicellular exocrine gland is A) a fibroblast. B) any hormone-secreting cell. C) an endothelial cell.
D) a goblet cell.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:73
68) Tissue types which are known as mucous and serous membranes are comprised of sheets of epithelial cells and A) adipose tissue. B) areolar connective tissue.
C) reticular connective tissue D) elastic connective tissue.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
69) When unstretched, transitional epithelium looks most like ________ epithelium. A) simple squamous B) pseudostratified columnar C) stratified squamous
D) stratified cuboidal
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:71-72
70) A pseudostratified epithelium is always A) simple. B) ciliated. C) stratified.
D) cuboidal.
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:67
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71) The embryonic tissue that gives rise to the adult connective tissues, consisting of star-shaped cells separated by large amounts of extracellular matrix, is A) ectoderm. B) epithelium.
C) mesenchyme. D) hypoblast.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:78, 82
72) The type of cell junction that closes off the space between epithelial cells, thereby limiting the passage of small molecules, is the A) tight junction. B) adherens junction.
C) desmosome. D) gap junction.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:74
73) Cell junctions occur in which plasma membrane of epithelial cells? A) apical B) lateral C) nuclear
D) basal lamina
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:74
74) In connective tissues, the primary extracellular molecules responsible for resisting tension are A) intermediate filaments in fibroblasts. B) collagen fibers.
C) proteoglycans D) elastin fibers.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:80
75) A connective tissue that has a liquid matrix is A) areolar connective tissue. B) tissue fluid. C) blood.
D) epithelium.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
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4.2 True/False Questions
1) Multilayered epithelia are named for the cell shape found in the basal layer.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:66
2) The mesothelium comprises the superficial layer of the serous membranes of the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:89
3) In bony tissues, chondrocytes are found in the lacunae.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
4) Dense regular connective tissue is characterized by giving strength in all directions.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:86
5) Areolar connective tissue forms the lamina propria of mucous membranes.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
6) Superficial fascia refers to the fatty hypodermis below the skin, whereas deep fascia are the sheets of tissue that wrap around muscles, large blood vessels, etc.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:81, 86
7) Much of the body’s adipose tissue is found in the hypodermis.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:81
8) Microvilli are common on almost all epithelial cells, but they are more obvious and abundant on absorption cells in the small intestine and the kidney.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:76
9) Unlike other connective tissues, bone is not considered to be a living tissue.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
10) In blood, the matrix is the liquid blood plasma.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:89
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11) Fibrosis involves the proliferation of a fibrous connective tissue called scar tissue.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:97
12) The cutaneous membrane is the skin.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:89
13) Cardiac muscle cells are connected to each other by intercalated discs.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:93
14) Skeletal muscle is characterized by obvious striations (seen microscopically) and multinucleate cells.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:93
15) Dense regular connective tissue gains its strength from the multitude of actin fibers that make up the bulk of the matrix.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:86
4.3 Short
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Answer Questions 1) The smallest diameter blood vessels, capillaries are comprised of ________. \Answer: simple squamous epithelium Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:67
2) This is the sheet of tissue between the epithelium and the connective tissue below it.
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Answer: basal lamina Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:76
3) An ________ gland releases its products through ducts onto body surfaces or into body cavities.
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Answer: exocrine Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:72
4) Damage to the basal lamina due to untreated diabetes may lead to kidney failure and pathological degeneration of what other organ?
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Answer: retina of the eye Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:76
5) Linker proteins in the extracellular space join cytoplasmic plaques on adjacent epithelial cells in this type of cell junction.
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Answer: desmosome Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:75
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6) The disease scurvy results from a deficiency of vitamin C, leading to a disruption in the synthesis of ________ fibers.
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Answer: collagen Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:80
7) Elastic fibers are comprised of the protein ________.
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Answer: elastin Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:80
8) The outermost layers of intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis are comprised of this type of cartilage.
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Answer: fibrocartilage Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:87
9) This type of fat is important in babies to aid in thermoregulation.
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Answer: brown fat Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:84
10) Identify two different locations in the human body where elastic cartilage is found.
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Answer: Pinna of the ear, epiglottis of the larynx Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:87
11) This term refers to the accumulation of fluid at a site of inflammation.
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Answer: edema Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:96
12) Deep ________ is a dense regular connective tissue that wraps around muscle groups, large vessels, and nerves.
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Answer: fascia Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:86
13) Nervous tissue and ________ tissues are generally thought to lack the capability to regenerate.
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Answer: cardiac muscle Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:97
14) Stem cells may be characterized as being ________ cells; in other words, they can produce new tissue cells as needed.
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Answer: undifferentiated Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:98
15) After a wound has healed, the scar that remains is nearly entirely composed of ________ fibers.
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Answer: collagen Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:97
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4.4 Essay Questions
1) Describe the medical potential seen for the use of stem cells.
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Answer: Stem cells may be used to "make" replacement tissues; may help to alleviate degenerative diseases; and could form new tissues, such as bone marrow cells, cardiac cells, and other tissues that have been damaged or have died. Further, they may be used to treat degenerative neurological tissues, because nerve tissue cannot effectively repair itself. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:98
2) Describe the classification of epithelial tissues.
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Answer: Epithelia may be simple (single layered) or stratified (in more than one layer). The cells that form it may be flat and platelike (squamous), roughly square (cuboidal), or tall and slender (columnar). Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:66-67
3) List at least four characteristics that distinguish epithelial tissues from other types of tissues.
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Answer: Epithelia are composed almost entirely of cells, have specialized contacts, have a free apical surface and a lower basal surface, are supported by underlying connective tissue, are avascular but innervated, and have a high capacity for regeneration. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:66
4) Briefly outline the steps of tissue repair in a skin wound. Include in your response the terms organization, granulation, and regeneration.
|
Answer: 1) An inflammatory response increases blood flow to the site of injury, which promotes the formation of a blood clot. 2) During the "organization" phase of tissue repair, blood vessels invade the clot and allow fibroblasts to arrive. These cells deposit collagen to tie the sides of the wound together with granulation tissue. 3) Macrophages dispose of bacteria, dead cells, and debris. 4) Regeneration involves the replacement of epithelium over the surface of the scar tissue. Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:97
5) Describe the basal lamina, its location, composition, and function.
|
Answer: The basal lamina lies between the epithelium and the connective tissue below it. It is a thin, noncellular sheet of proteins secreted by the epithelial cells. It functions as a selective filter. When the epithelium has been damaged or scraped off, the basal lamina aids in regeneration of the epithelium by serving as a scaffold for migrating epithelial cells. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:76
12) Which of these diseases is characterized by a pathological loss of bone density? A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
|
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Ref:143
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13) Which of these would be characterized as a skeletal disorder resulting in weakened bones due to inadequate mineralization?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:144
14) Which disease of the skeletal system is often associated with decreasing levels of estrogen, but may also result from inadequate weight-bearing exercise and nutritional deficiencies of calcium, vitamin D and protein?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis C) osteoporosis D) achondroplasia E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:143-144
15) What disease might result from a compound fracture of a bone? A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
16) Which skeletal disorder is more common in older persons and has an abnormally high ratio of immature woven bone to mature compact bone?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
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17) Which of these results from a genetic mutation that leads to premature endochondral ossification before adult height can be reached?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:139
18) Most bone disorders are characterized by bone loss; which of these diseases is characterized by excessive bone deposition?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
|
Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
19) What skeletal disease results from a bacterial infection of the bone and bone marrow? A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
20) Which of these is a skeletal disorder resulting from mutations in a gene that leads to the most common form of dwarfism?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:139
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21) Which of these diseases can be treated by administering calcitonin and calcium supplements increased weight-bearing exercise and osteoclast-inhibiting drugs?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:143-144
22) Which of these skeletal disorders is characterized in the later stages by excessive rates of bone deposition, where medullary cavities may fill with bony matrix?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
|
Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:141
23) Which of these is a congenital condition primarily affecting long bones? A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:139
24) Which of these diseases is more prevalent in children, and was exceedingly common in the United States and other industrialized nations before vitamin D was added to milk?
A) rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:144
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25) Which of these diseases, if untreated could lead to excessively long epiphyses and bowed legs in children?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget’s disease
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:144
26) A long bone that is fractured midshaft has damaged the A) meniscus.
B) articular cartilage.
C) epiphysis.
D) diaphysis.
|
Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:129-130
27) In the bone matrix, osteoblasts become A) osteocytes.
B) chondrocytes.
C) osteoclasts.
D) mesenchyme cells.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:128
28) Which of the following is the correct progression in the healing of a skeletal fracture? A) bone remodeling, bony callus, hematoma, fibrocartilage callus
B) fibrocartilage callus, bone remodeling, bony callus, hematoma
C) hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, bone remodeling
D) hematoma, bony callus, bone remodeling, fibrocartilage callus
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:140-141
29) The type of cartilage that forms the long bones of the embryonic skeleton is A) hyaline cartilage.
B) fibrocartilage.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) calcified cartilage.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:125-126, 136-137
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30) The kneecap, or patella, is an example of A) a flat bone.
B) an irregular bone.
C) a sesamoid bone.
D) calcified cartilage.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:129
31) Blood vessels to the diaphysis move through the A) epiphyseal plate.
B) articular cartilage.
C) foramen magnum.
D) nutrient foramen.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:130
32) The continual process of bone resorption is under the control of the A) parathyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) pituitary gland.
D) adrenal gland.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:137-138
33) In an adult, the perichondrium
A) inhibits growth and repair of cartilage.
B) produces new chondrocytes.
C) acts like a girdle to prevent matrix extrusion when cartilage is compressed. D) binds the cartilage to adjacent bones.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:125
34) Bones in the wrists and ankles are A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) irregular bones.
D) flat bones.
|
Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:128
35) Which of the following statements about a long bone is false? A) It has a diaphysis.
B) It has two distinct ends.
C) It is longer than it is wide.
D) It must be more than 5 inches in length.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:128-129
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36) An incomplete, splintery fracture that occurs in the flexible bones of children is a(n) ________ fracture.
A) greenstick
B) depressed
C) comminuted
D) epiphyseal
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:142
37) In which type of fracture does the bone fragment into three or more pieces? A) greenstick
B) epiphyseal
C) comminuted
D) spiral
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:142
38) Osteoid is
A) the mineral part of the bone matrix.
B) secreted by osteocytes.
C) the entire extracellular matrix of bone.
D) the organic part of bone matrix prior to mineralization.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:128
39) A disease that is characterized by excessive and abnormal remodeling of bone tissue and affects 3% of the elderly is
A) Paget’s disease.
B) osteosarcoma.
C) osteomyelitis.
D) osteomalacia.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:141
40) The process of bone growth is regulated by several hormones throughout the lifetime of an individual. The hormone most influential in skeletal growth prior to adolescence is secreted from the
A) parathyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) pituitary gland.
D) adrenal gland.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:139
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41) The only membrane bone that occurs inferior to the skull is the A) femur.
B) sternum.
C) rib.
D) clavicle.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:136
42) Within a long bone of the skeleton, the circumferential lamellae are located in the A) trabeculae.
B) osteons.
C) external and internal regions of compact bone.
D) marrow cavity.
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:135
43) Muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because
A) a circumferential lamella sandwiches the ends of the tendon onto the surface of an adjacent lamella.
B) elastin fibers in the tendon can allow for stretching and recoil of the muscle.
C) perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendons and periosteum to the cortical surfaces of bone.
D) the tendons are partially ossified at their attachment points to the periosteum.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:131
44) The primary center of ossification A) occurs in the 4-week embryo.
B) is in the diaphysis.
C) is in the epiphysis.
D) is in membrane bones but not in endochondral bones.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:137
45) Osteoblasts probably originate directly from A) mesenchyme cells.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteocytes.
D) blood stem cells.
|
Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:136& 140
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46) A hormone that increases the bone-degrading activity of osteoclasts is A) an androgen (male sex hormone).
B) an estrogen (female sex hormone).
C) thyroid hormone.
D) parathyroid hormone.
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:141
47) Cartilage repairs slowly after adolescence because
A) the perichondrium thickens, preventing diffusion of gasses and nutrients. B) the cartilage matrix becomes mineralized.
C) chondrocytes no longer are able to divide.
D) collagen synthesis ceases.
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:127
48) Which term applies to a number of disorders in adults in which the bones are inadequately mineralized?
A) rickets
B) osteomalacia
C) Paget’s disease
D) osteosarcoma
|
Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:144
49) Rickets most often results from a deficiency of vitamin A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:144
50) An osteon is composed of
A) a cell body and a long, threadlike extension.
B) cartilage.
C) layers of bone lamellae surrounding a central canal. D) interstitial lamellae.
|
Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:132-135
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51) What type of tissue is the embryonic precursor for long bones in the fetal skeleton? A) elastic connective tissue
B) dense connective tissue proper
C) fibrocartilage
D) hyaline cartilage
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:125-126
52) The type of cartilage that can withstand the strongest compression and tension forces is A) hyaline cartilage.
B) elastic cartilage.
C) fibrocartilage.
D) calcified cartilage.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:126-127
53) A long bone is able to withstand extreme torsion or twisting stresses because
A) the bone is spongelike with many hollow spaces, such as the central and epiphyseal marrow cavities.
B) within each osteon the collagen fibers and mineral crystals in adjacent lamellae are aligned in opposite directions.
C) the internal and external surfaces are both covered in irregular connective tissue fibers.
D) the trabeculae of spongy bone are aligned along stress trajectories.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:133
54) The cartilage of the epiphyseal plates is organized into zones based upon the unique processes occurring in each of these regions. Identify the correct sequence of these processes, from the epiphyseal end toward the diaphysis.
A) calcification — hypertrophy — growth — resting — ossification
B) ossification — calcification — hypertrophy — growth — resting
C) resting — hypertrophy — growth — calcification — ossification
D) hypertrophy — growth — resting — calcification — ossification
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:138-139
55) The type of cartilage that comprises the epiglottis is A) hyaline cartilage.
B) fibrocartilage.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) calcified cartilage.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:126
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56) The type of cartilage that forms the costal cartilages at the ends of the ribs is A) hyaline cartilage.
B) fibrocartilage.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) calcified cartilage.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:125-126
57) If a bone is thin, flattened, and somewhat curved, that bone is a(n) ________ bone. A) long
B) short
C) irregular
D) flat
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:128-129
58) If a bone located in a limb is longer than it is wide, that bone is a(n) ________ bone. A) long
B) short
C) irregular
D) flat
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:128-129
59) In the repair of a simple fracture, the step that follows formation of a hematoma is A) formation of a bony callus.
B) inflammation.
C) formation of fibrocartilaginous callus.
D) bone remodeling.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141-143
60) Which type of fracture tends to occur where cartilage cells are dying and the matrix is calcifying?
A) greenstick
B) epiphyseal
C) spiral
D) comminuted
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:142
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61) Which statement about growth of long bones is false?
A) The bone cannot grow longer once the epiphyseal plates are ossified. B) The diaphysis becomes progressively thinner as the bone lengthens. C) The epiphyses are pushed further from the center of the diaphysis. D) The epiphyseal plates remain a constant thickness during growth.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:136-138
62) Which hormone is primarily responsible for bone matrix resorption rather than bone matrix deposition during puberty?
A) growth hormone
B) parathyroid hormone
C) sex hormones
D) thyroid hormone
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:140-141
63) In growing cartilage, the chondroblasts associated with the perichondrium are responsible for A) interstitial growth.
B) appositional growth.
C) endochondral growth.
D) calcification.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:127
64) Which bone cell type secretes hydrochloric acid? A) osteoblast
B) osteoclast
C) osteocyte
D) osteoprogenitor
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:139-140
65) Which factor will decrease the rate of bone resorption? A) inadequate vitamin D intake
B) long zero-gravity exposure
C) mechanical stress
D) prolonged bed rest
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:140-141
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66) Which of the following statements about woven bone is false?
A) It is the same as spongy bone of adults.
B) It contains no trabeculae.
C) It is characteristic of the development of embryonic flat bones.
D) As fetal development progresses it is replaced by comapact bone at the periphery.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:136
67) In an open reduction to repair a broken bone,
A) the ends are close enough to allow them to heal together on their own. B) the ends are joined by pins or wires.
C) the ends are repositioned by physician’s hands.
D) the ends must have chips placed between them to bridge the gap.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
68) A large, multinucleate cell with a ruffled border is an A) osteoclast.
B) adipocyte.
C) osteocyte.
D) osteoblast.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:140
69) The benefits of weight-bearing exercise include stronger muscles A) but weaker bones.
B) and stronger bones.
C) but bones of the same strength.
D) and stronger compact bone, but weaker spongy bone.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:141
70) Which of the following is not present in the central canals of osteons? A) blood vessels
B) nerves
C) endosteum
D) osteocytes
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:131, 133
71) The universal loss of skeletal mass that begins after age 40 A) is slower in women than in men.
B) is absolutely uniform throughout the skeleton.
C) reflects an imbalance in the bone-remodeling process.
D) is due to increased blood flow to bones as individuals age.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:145
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72) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the A) chondroblast.
B) osteoblast.
C) osteoclast.
D) chondrocyte.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:140
73) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of cartilage is the A) osteocyte.
B) osteoblast.
C) osteoclast.
D) chondroblast.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:126
74) Which of the following is not a function of the bony skeleton? A) support and protection
B) storage of parathyroid hormone
C) transmission of muscular forces by acting as levers
D) production of blood cells
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:127
75) Repair of a simple fracture begins with A) calcification of dense connective tissue. B) granulation tissue formation.
C) hyaline cartilage deposition.
D) inflammation and hematoma formation.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
6.2 True/False Questions
1) Microscopic inspection of hyaline cartilage would show prominent parallel bundles of collagen fibers.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:125-126
2) In appositional growth, chondrocytes within cartilage divide and secrete new matrix.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:127
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3) As a person ages, some calcium phosphate crystals are deposited within cartilage, leading to a condition called calcified cartilage.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:127
4) Cartilage is strong in resisting twisting and bending but weak in resisting tension and compression.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:125-127
5) A fracture in which the bone breaks cleanly but does not penetrate the skin is a compound fracture.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
6) The bones of your hand and fingers would all be categorized as long bones.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:128-129
7) A long bone may be characterized by two diaphyses and one epiphysis.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:128-129
8) Examples of flat bones include the ribs, sternum, the bones of the head surrounding the brain case, and the scapula.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:129
9) A sesamoid bone is a specialized short bone that develops within a tendon, such as the patella.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:129
10) Osteocytes, residing within lacunae, are connected via canaliculi.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:134
11) Circumferential lamellae occur around the entire outer and inner surfaces of compact bone, and they are considered remnants of old osteons that have been disrupted by bone remodeling.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:135
12) As cartilage ages, calcium salts are deposited and mineralize the cartilage, turning it into bone.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:127
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13) Epiphyseal plates typically close at the time an infant learns to walk.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:138
14) Pathologic fractures occur in a diseased bone and involve slight or no physical trauma.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
15) Membrane bones form directly from mesenchyme without being modeled in cartilage.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:136
6.3 Short
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Answer Questions 1) In ________ growth, cartilage-forming cells from the perichondrium produce new cartilage tissue by actively secreting matrix. \Answer: appositional Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:127
2) The two primary minerals stored in bone are ________ and ________.
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Answer: calcium and phosphate Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:127
3) ________ canals lie perpendicular to the central, or Haversian, canals.
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Answer: Perforating or Volkmann’s Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:133-134
4) The joint surface of each epiphysis is covered with a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called the ________.
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Answer: articular cartilage Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:126
5) You might expect the epiphyseal plate to close between ages ________ years.
|
Answer: 15-23 Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:139
6) A blow to the head results in a portion of the broken bone pressed inward; this type of fracture is known as ________.
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Answer: depressed Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:142
7) Treatment of osteoporosis with vitamin D, calcium, and weight-bearing exercise is helpful and not controversial. Treatments that include ________ is controversial because it may lead to increased risk of heart attack, stroke and breast cancer.
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Answer: estrogen replacement therapy Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:144
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8) This disease is characterized by excessive rates of bone deposition and bone resorption.
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Answer: Paget’s disease Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:141
9) ________ is a condition in children that was more common early in the nineteenth century, before vitamin D was added to milk in most developed countries.
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Answer: Rickets Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:144
10) ________ is characterized by an increased prevalence in teens and young adults with pain in long bones of the extremities. If untreated, metastasis to the lungs is common.
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Answer: Osteosarcoma Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:145
11) A(n) ________ is common in older persons and is a projection on a bone due to abnormal bone overgrowth.
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Answer: bone spur Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
12) A bone graft often uses a piece of the ________ that is placed where bone has been damaged or removed.
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Answer: ilium Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
13) ________ is the term for pain in a bone, typical after bone grafting or bone removal.
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Answer: Ostealgia Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:146
14) Bundles of collagen that attach the periosteum to bone are called ________.
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Answer: perforating collagen fiber bundles, Sharpey’s fibers Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:131
15) The ________ delivers osteoblasts and osteoclasts to the primary center of ossification.
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Answer: periosteal bud Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:137
6.4 Essay Questions
1) Discuss the changes that occur during osteoporosis and their causes.
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Answer: In osteoporosis there is loss of bone mass and loss of trabeculae, and the compact bone becomes thinner and less dense. Fractures then become common. It occurs more often in the elderly and post-menopausal women because of the decline in estrogen production. Additional contributing factors include insufficient weight-bearing exercise and a diet insufficient in calcium, vitamin D and protein. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:143-144
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2) Explain the healing of a simple fracture.
|
Answer: First, hematoma formation stops the flow of blood at the point of the break. Fibrocartilage callus formation is facilitated by the cells of the periosteum and endosteum, leading to a soft callus. Bony callus formation follows, by endochondral ossification, and the trabeculae span the break in the bone. Bone remodeling occurs over a number of months and includes removal of excess bony material and the appropriate addition of compact bone. Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:141-143
3) Describe the three types of cartilage and their defining characteristics.
|
Answer: Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant. Unstained, it appears "glassy" under the microscope; collagen fibers are not visible using light microscopy but are present in the matrix, providing strength and flexibility. Elastic cartilage contains many more dark-staining elastic fibers in the matrix (which are visible with light microscopy), They allow this cartilage to readily deform and recoil. Fibrocartilage contains thicker collagen fibers, oriented between rows of chondrocytes, and is resistant to both compression and tension forces. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:125-127
4) Explain how the epiphyseal plate remains a constant width until puberty is completed.
|
Answer: Chrondrocytes proximal to the medullary cavity of the long bone are relatively inactive and eventually are deprived of nutrients by calcification of the surrounding matrix. These dead chrondrocytes are replaced by osteoclasts and osteoblasts. Meanwhile, the chrondrocytes closer to the epiphyses rapidly undergo mitosis and are actively secreting additional cartilage matrix. These cells proliferate at about the same rate as others die. In this way, the plate maintains its thickness until the rate of proliferation slows as puberty is completed. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:138-139
16) On which of these bones would the mental foramen be found? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:162-163
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17) Which of these bones has a foramen that encircles the superior aspect of the spinal cord? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:156
18) Which of these bones has a squamous and petrous region? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:156-158
19) Which of these bones together with the maxilla, functions in chewing? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:162-163
20) Which of these bones forms part of the interior of the nasal cavity and the orbit for the eye? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:162
21) Which of these bones has a ramus and angle? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:162-163
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22) Which of these bones has pterygoid processes and the optic canal? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:158-162
23) Which of these bones has a mastoid process and a styloid process? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:156-158
24) Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: E Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:162
25) Which of these bones has "wings" and a body? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:158-162
26) Which of these bones/bony collections listed below is not part of the axial skeleton? A) the skull B) the sternum C) the pelvis
D) the sacrum
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:151
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27) The ribs that are attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly are known as A) the true ribs. B) the false ribs.
C) the floating ribs. D) vertebrosternal ribs.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:179
28) Which bony landmark below is most similar to a meatus? A) facet B) foramen C) groove
D) suture
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:152
29) Which is not a region of the temporal bone? A) hypophyseal B) petrous C) squamous
D) tympanic
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:156-158
30) Which of the bones listed below does not contain air sinuses? A) the frontal bone B) the ethmoid C) the maxilla
D) the mandible
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:168
31) The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the A) frontal bone. B) frontal and temporal bones. C) frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones.
D) frontal, sphenoid, and temporal bones.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:152
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32) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the orbit? A) the frontal B) the zygomatic C) the palatine
D) the temporal
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:169
33) This bone has nuchal lines, the hypoglossal canal, and condyles. A) mandible B) occipital C) sphenoid
D) temporal
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:156
34) Which of the bones listed below does not have a zygomatic process? A) frontal B) maxillary C) temporal
D) zygomatic
|
Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:164
35) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the calvaria? A) mandible B) occipital C) parietal
D) temporal
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:153
36) The jugular foramen is located A) anterior to the foramen lacerum. B) between the temporal and occipital bones. C) posterior to the occipital condyles. D) within the greater wing of the sphenoid.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:157
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37) Quasimodo, the main character in Victor Hugo’s The Hunchback of Notre Dame, suffered from A) rickets. B) scoliosis.
C) lordosis. D) kyphosis.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:181
38) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone A) anchors the brain into the anterior cranial fossa. B) attaches neck muscles the skull. C) forms the superior portion of the nasal septum. D) holds the pituitary gland.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:160
39) A condyle is a bone marking that is A) a sharp, slender, pointed projection. B) a long, narrow ridge of bone. C) a large opening through a bone.
D) a large projection for bone to bone articulation.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:163
40) Which of the facial bones listed below is unpaired? A) palatine B) zygomatic C) lacrimal
D) vomer
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:162-163
41) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the nasal cavity? A) temporal bone B) ethmoid bone C) inferior nasal concha
D) palatine bone
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:165
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42) The external and internal acoustic meatuses are in the ________ and ________ regions of the temporal bone, respectively. A) squamous; mastoid B) tympanic; petrous
C) mastoid; petrous D) squamous; sphenoid
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:156
43) Which of the bones listed below does not contribute to the cranial floor? A) occipital B) sphenoid C) frontal
D) palatine
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:165
44) The ridge-like bone or bones that separate(s) the posterior from the middle cranial fossa is (are) the A) occipital bone. B) sphenoid bone.
C) frontal bone. D) temporal bones.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:164
45) Which bones are divided by the sagittal suture? A) occipital and parietal B) frontal and parietal C) temporal and parietal
D) right and left parietal bones
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:153
46) In referring to the alveolar regions of the mandible and maxillae, the alveoli are A) glands (salivary glands). B) tooth sockets. C) lips.
D) the palate.
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:163
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47) What does the costal tubercle of a rib articulate with? A) vertebral body of thoracic vertebrae B) transverse process of thoracic vertebrae C) vertebral lamina of thoracic vertebrae
D) costal cartilage of thoracic cage
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:180
48) For each vertebrae, the laminae A) are major components of the vertebral arches. B) are where the ribs attach. C) lie ventral to the vertebral foramen. D) occur in two pairs, so there are four of them.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:172
49) Which bone articulates with the dens? A) atlas B) axis C) occipital
D) temporal
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:173
50) When in life does the lumbar curvature of the vertebral column appear? A) in the 2-month embryo B) at the time of birth C) in the toddler (about 1 year old)
D) in old age
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:171
51) The largest fontanelle, forming the largest soft spot on a baby’s head, is the A) anterior. B) posterior. C) mastoid.
D) sphenoidal.
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:181
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52) The bone of the skull that has pterygoid processes, greater wings, and a hypophyseal fossa is the A) ethmoid. B) palatine.
C) sphenoid. D) temporal.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:158-162
53) The function of the anterior longitudinal ligament on the vertebral bodies is A) to prevent hyperextension of the back. B) to allow for extensive lateral movement and rotation of adjacent vertebrae. C) to protect the spinal nerve cord.
D) to hold the vertebral laminae together.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:171
54) Which type of movement is not possible between the lumbar vertebrae? A) flexion B) extension C) lateral flexion
D) circumduction
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:177
55) The difference between cranium and skull, if any, is that A) the skull contains the hyoid bone but the cranium does not; otherwise they are the same. B) the skull contains facial bones and cranial bones. C) the cranium does not include the floor of the skull. D) the cranium contains the orbits, but the skull does not.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:152
56) Which part of the temporal bone projects medially and contains organs of the inner ear? A) styloid B) petrous C) squamous
D) zygomatic
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:158
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57) Which bone listed below has cribriform foramina? A) concha B) ethmoid C) lacrimal
D) nasal
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:162
58) The largest paranasal sinus is the A) frontal. B) maxillary. C) ethmoid.
D) sphenoid.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:168
59) Which of the bones listed below is not a facial bone? A) lacrimal B) zygomatic C) parietal
D) mandible
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:165
60) The sella turcica is a bony landmark of which bone listed below? A) parietal B) frontal C) sphenoid
D) ethmoid
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:158
61) Swayback, which sometimes occurs in obese individuals, is also called A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) kyphosis.
D) hunchback.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:181
62) The vertebra that lacks a body and helps allow one to nod the head is the A) axis. B) atlas. C) vertebra prominens.
D) coccyx.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:174
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63) An example of a false rib that is also a floating rib is A) rib 11. B) rib 8. C) rib 1.
D) rib 7.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:179
64) Which of the bones of the axial skeleton listed below is paired? A) fifth thoracic vertebra B) rib 3 C) the sacrum
D) the sphenoid
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:179
65) Which of the vertebral characteristics described below, would not distinguish a lumbar vertebra from a thoracic vertebra? A) absence of costal facets B) posteromedial facing superior facets
C) presence of an inferior vertebral notch D) triangular-shaped vertebral foramen
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:175-177
66) The primary bone underlying the cheek is the A) maxillary. B) temporal. C) frontal.
D) zygomatic.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:165
67) Whereas the inferior concha is a projection from the maxilla, the superior and middle nasal conchae are projections of the ________ bone. A) sphenoid B) vomer
C) ethmoid D) palatine
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:162
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68) Which cranial bones meet at the lambdoid suture? A) frontal and parietal B) parietal and occipital C) frontal and nasal
D) parietal and temporal
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:154
69) The thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs at the A) body and transverse processes. B) spinous processes. C) inferior and superior articular facets.
D) head and articular tubercle.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:179-180
70) The manubrium articulates with all of the bones listed below except A) rib 1. B) rib 2. C) the xiphoid.
D) the clavicle.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:179
71) The sternal angle is at the same level as rib number A) 1. B) 2. C) 3.
D) 5.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:179
72) The most anterior ridge of the sacrum is the A) median sacral crest. B) sacral promontory. C) sacral hiatus.
D) third dorsal sacral foramen.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:177
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73) The collagen-rich ________ limits expansion of the nucleus pulposus when the spine is compressed. A) annulus fibrosus B) costal cartilage
C) lateral masses D) ligamentum flavum
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:171-172
74) All of the bony landmarks listed below are found within the orbit except the A) superior orbital fissure. B) inferior orbital fissure. C) infraorbital foramen.
D) optic canal.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:169
75) The lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid are in the ________ and ________ cranial fossae, respectively. A) anterior; posterior B) anterior; middle
C) middle; posterior D) posterior; middle
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:159
7.2 True/False Questions
1) The foramen ovale is bounded posteriorly by the foramen spinosum and anteriorly by the foramen rotundum.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:159
2) The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:151
3) The cranial vault forms the superior, inferior, and lateral aspects of the skull.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:153
4) The first 10 pairs of ribs are true ribs.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page
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|
Ref:179
17 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) Scoliosis is an accentuated lumbar curvature of the spine.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:180-181
6) The term process in anatomical terminology means any prominence on a bone.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:133
7) Kyphosis is an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:181
8) The head of a rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:180
9) The vomer is an unpaired bone located superior to the palate.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:167
10) The superior orbital fissure is part of the sphenoid bone.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:164
11) The superior and inferior nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:164
12) The teeth fit into the sockets of both the mandible and the maxilla.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:167
13) The bony framework of the face consists of 14 facial bones.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:162
14) The cervical and thoracic curves are primary curves.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:171
15) Osteoporosis of the spine often leads to kyphosis, often called the "dowager’s hump" in elderly individuals.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:180-181
18 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
7.3 Short
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Answer Questions 1) Fatal whiplash involves what bony structure? \Answer: the dens Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:174
2) The transverse costal facet articulates with this bony landmark on a rib.
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Answer: tubercle Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:180
3) If a vertebra has a spinous process that is rather slender and points inferiorly, it is most likely what type of vertebra?
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Answer: thoracic Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:175
4) Regarding the thoracic vertebrae, do the superior articular facets face anteriorly or posteriorly?
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Answer: posteriorly Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:175
5) Surgery to remove part of the cranium is referred to as ________.
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Answer: a craniotomy Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:182
6) What bony structure articulates with the inferior apex of the sacrum?
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Answer: the coccyx Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:177-178
7) What are the three regions of the sternum, listed from most superior to most inferior?
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Answer: manubrium, body, xiphoid process Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:179
8) The costal margin is formed by what structures? Be specific!
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Answer: the costal cartilages of ribs 7 through 10 Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:179
9) This is the largest fontanelle of the skull.
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Answer: anterior fontanelle Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:181
10) This bone of the axial skeleton does not articulate with any other bone.
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Answer: hyoid Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:169-170
11) A nasal septum that is markedly off center is a(n) ________.
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Answer: deviated septum Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:167
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12) What is the most common congenital abnormality of the skull?
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Answer: cleft palate Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:180
13) What is the term for a smooth, flat articular surface on vertebrae?
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Answer: a facet Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:173
14) The occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones and parts of the temporal bone form from what type of embryonic tissue?
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Answer: cartilage Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:181
15) Name the four longest sutures of the skull.
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Answer: coronal, sagittal, squamous, and lambdoid Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:153-154
7.4 Essay Questions
1) List the bones that articulate at each of the four major sutures of the skull.
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Answer: Coronal: frontal and parietal bones. Squamous: parietal and temporal bones. Sagittal: between the parietal bones. Lambdoid suture: parietal and occipital bones. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:153-154
2) List the 14 bones of the face. Identify which are paired (with the letter P) and which are unpaired (using UP).
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Answer: Mandible (UP), maxillae (P), zygomatics (P), nasals (P), lacrimals (P), palatines (P), inferior nasal conchae (P), vomer (UP) Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:165
3) Describe how the longitudinal ligaments, ligamentum flavum, and intervertebral discs control the flexibility of the vertebral column.
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Answer: The intervertebral discs are located between adjacent vertebrae, giving the vertebral column the ability to stretch and compress. The annulus fibrosus places limits on these motions. The anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments prevent hyperextension and hyperflexion, respectively. The ligamentum flavum assists in recoil after anterior flexion of the vertebral column. Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:171-172
4) What bony structures form the nasal cavity? (Hint: there are seven separate bones, and the number of parts of these bones is greater than the number of bones; name the parts as best you can.)
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Answer: The cribriform plates and the superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid, the palatine and frontal processes of the maxillae, the horizontal plates and the perpendicular processes of the palatine bones, the nasal bones, and the inferior nasal conchae. Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:167-168
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5) Name the four bones that contain the paranasal sinuses. What lines these sinuses? What is the primary function of the sinuses? Why are they called paranasal sinuses?
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Answer: The ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary bones contain the sinuses. Mucous membranes line these cavities. They function in lightening the weight of the skull. They are called paranasal sinuses because they are in close proximity to the nasal cavity. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:168-169
16) The coronoid fossa is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:190
17) The deltoid tuberosity is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:189
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18) The intercondylar eminence is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200
19) The trochlear notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:190
20) The olecranon process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:190
21) The ulnar notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:190
22) The medial malleolus is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200
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23) The styloid process on lateral side of the antebrachium is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia
C) ulna D) humerus
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:190
24) The bony landmark which is the attachment point for the patellar ligament is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia
C) ulna D) humerus
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:202
25) The coronoid process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna
D) humerus
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:190
26) Which bone is the keystone of the medial arch of the foot? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular
D) talus
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:204
27) The tallest arch of the foot is the ________ arch. A) medial B) lateral C) transverse
D) intermediate
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
|
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Ref:203-204
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28) All of these bony landmarks contribute to the pelvic inlet (brim) except the A) sacral promontory. B) ischial tuberosities. C) arcuate lines on the ilia.
D) pubic crests.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:196
29) Which of the following statements about the patella is false? A) It is roughly triangular in shape. B) It is a sesamoid bone. C) It acts to protect the knee joint anteriorly.
D) It articulates with the femur, tibia, and fibula.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:199
30) The acromion of the scapula A) articulates with the humerus. B) attaches the biceps muscle of the arm. C) is an extension of the scapular spine. D) lies anterior to the coracoid process.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:187-188
31) The bone of the forearm that directly and functionally articulates with the carpals is the A) ulna. B) radius. C) humerus.
D) lunate.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:192
32) The rotator cuff muscles attach to the humerus at the A) deltoid tuberosity. B) epicondyles. C) supracondylar ridges.
D) tubercles.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
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Ref:189
33) The pubic bone is characterized by all of the following except that it A) forms part of the obturator foramen. B) forms part of the acetabulum. C) forms part of the greater sciatic notch.
D) fuses with the ischium.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:196-197
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34) Which of the following statements about the male pelvis is false? A) The bones are heavier and rougher than in the female. B) The male pelvis is narrow and deep. C) The male pubic arch is wider than that of the female.
D) The cavity of the true pelvis is smaller in the female.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:198
35) How is it possible to tell whether an isolated clavicle is the right or left one? A) The medial end is cone-shaped, the lateral end is flat, and the inferior surface is ridged. B) The lateral end is flat, the medial end is cone-shaped, and the superior surface is curved. C) The medial end is S-shaped, the lateral end is straight, and the superior surface is ridged. D) The coronoid process is on the lateral end, the ridge is on the superior surface, and the socket is in the medial end.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:186-187
36) The area between the crest of the ilium and the arcuate line is called the A) false pelvis. B) pelvic inlet. C) pelvic outlet.
D) true pelvis.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:196
37) In anatomical position, A) the head of the radius is medial to the ulna. B) the radius is lateral to the ulna. C) the styloid process of the radius is medial to the ulna. D) the ulna is lateral to the radius.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:190
38) The bone of the palm that articulates with the shortest digit is A) metacarpal I. B) metacarpal II. C) metacarpal III.
D) metacarpal V.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:192
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39) Which of the following statements concerning the fibula is false? A) It helps stabilize the ankle. B) It helps stabilize the knee. C) It is the thinnest of the two leg bones.
D) It forms the lateral malleolus.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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|
Ref:201-202
40) Which of the appendicular foramen listed below is "closed up" and has very few vessels or nerves passing through it? A) obturator foramen B) olfactory foramen
C) foramen lacerum D) foramen magnum
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:197
41) Which of the bones listed below is the "heel" bone? A) hamate B) talus C) calcaneus
D) cuboid
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:202-203
42) Which of the bones listed below is not found a carpal bone? A) cuboid B) triquetral C) scaphoid
D) hamate
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:192
43) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) patella B) femur C) sacrum
D) navicular
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:194
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44) Which of these bone combinations represents a pair of pivoting bones? A) tibia and fibula B) ulna and radius C) pisiform and triquetrum
D) clavicle and scapula
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:191
45) Which border of the scapula is proximal to the vertebral column? A) superior B) inferior C) lateral
D) medial
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:187-188
46) Which of the bones listed below does not articulate with the clavicle? A) scapula B) rib 1 C) manubrium
D) 7th vertebra
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:186-187
47) The anatomical neck of the humerus lies A) proximal to the tubercles. B) distal to the tubercles. C) beside the deltoid tuberosity.
D) near the radial groove.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:189
48) Which of the bony landmarks listed below is not part of the distal end of the humerus? A) capitulum B) trochlea C) intertubercular sulcus
D) olecranon fossa
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:189
49) The coronoid process is part of the A) ulna. B) humerus. C) radius.
D) carpal bones.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:191
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50) Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus? A) lateral cuneiform B) navicular C) cuboid
D) calcaneus
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:202
51) What is the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome? A) compression of the carpal bones B) fibrosis of the interosseous membrane C) compression of the median nerve
D) damage to the radioulnar joint
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:194
52) The ischium joins the pubis in the acetabulum and at the A) superior pubic ramus. B) inferior pubic ramus. C) sacroiliac joint.
D) pubic symphysis.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:195
53) Which of the following bones primarily bears the weight of the body? A) talus B) navicular C) cuboid
D) cuneiforms
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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|
Ref:203
54) The boundaries of the pelvic outlet include all those listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) sacrum. C) coccyx.
D) gluteal tuberosity.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:197
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55) As it runs from the hip to the knee, the femur projects ________ as well as inferiorly. A) medially B) anteriorly C) laterally
D) posteriorly
|
Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:197
56) The pelvic inlet (brim) is widest A) from anterior to posterior. B) from side to side. C) obliquely.
D) superior to inferior.
|
Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:197
57) The auricular surface of the ilium A) attaches gluteal muscles. B) forms the lateral borders of the false pelvis. C) forms the sacroiliac joint. D) lines the interior of the acetabulum.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:196
58) When an individual "breaks a hip," the most common location of the fracture is the A) acetabulum of the os coxa. B) diaphysis of the femur. C) iliac crest of the os coxa.
D) neck of the femur.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:197
59) The fibula A) articulates with the femur. B) crosses the tibia when the leg is rotated. C) forms the lateral border of the knee joint. D) stabilizes the ankle joint.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200, 202
60) At the shoulder joint, the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the A) glenoid cavity. B) coracoid process. C) subscapular fossa.
D) acromion process.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:187
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61) All of these bones are in the proximal row of four carpal bones except the A) scaphoid. B) triquetral. C) pisiform.
D) trapezoid.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:192
62) The supraspinous fossa is in the ________ region of the scapula. A) anterosuperior B) anteroinferior C) posterosuperior
D) posteroinferior
|
Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:187-188
63) The bony landmark at the lateral angle of the scapula is the A) suprascapular notch. B) glenoid cavity. C) spine.
D) acromion.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:187-188
64) The ischium has all of these features listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) ischial spine. C) body.
D) superior ramus.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:196
65) Which of these bones of the appendicular skeleton are unpaired? A) humerus B) clavicle C) os coxae
D) None; all appendicular bones are paired.
|
Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:185-186
66) All of the bones of the digits are collectively known as A) phalanges. B) tarsals. C) carpals.
D) metacarpals.
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:192
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67) The fibula has all of the following features except the A) head. B) inferior tibiofibular joint (facet). C) medial malleolus.
D) lateral malleolus.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200
68) Which of the statements below regarding the metatarsals is false? A) They are numbered 1-5 from lateral to medial, just like the metacarpals. B) They articulate proximally to the cuneiforms and cuboid. C) They contribute to the three arches of the feet. D) They support some of the body’s weight.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:203
69) All of these statements regarding the acetabulum are true except A) The acetabulum is where the three pelvic bones intersect. B) The acetabulum participates in the hip joint. C) The acetabulum is cup-shaped.
D) The acetabulum articulates with the sacrum.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:194-195
70) The clavicle functions to A) transmit compression forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton. B) protect the lungs. C) allow the arm to extend further for reaching. D) provide balance for the scapula on the other side of the body.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:187
71) By anatomical definition the leg extends from the A) back (including the pelvis) to the tips of the toes. B) the top of the femur to the ankle. C) acetabulum to the metatarsals.
D) knee to the ankle.
|
Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:199, 201
72) The bone in the upper limb that corresponds to the femur in the lower limb is the A) humerus. B) radius. C) ulna.
D) ischium.
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:187, 189
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73) The bone that has a trochlear notch, an olecranon process, and a coronoid process is the A) tibia. B) radius. C) ulna.
D) femur.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:190-191
74) The bone that has a trochlea, a capitulum, and a greater tubercle is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) humerus.
D) fibula.
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:187, 190
75) These three tarsal bones lie just distal to the navicular are the A) cuneiforms. B) cuboids. C) trapezoids.
D) naviculars.
|
Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:202
8.2 True/False Questions
1) The coracoid process of the scapula articulates with the clavicle.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:186
2) The metacarpus is the palm of the hand.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:192
3) The thumb has no middle phalanx.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:192
4) The posterior inferior iliac spine is superior to the ischial spine.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:195
5) The subscapular fossa lies inferior to the spine and faces posteriorly.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:188
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6) The proximal end of the fibula is the lateral malleolus.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:200, 202
7) The tibia articulates distally with the trochlea of the talus.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:203
8) As one ages, the upper-lower (UL) body ratio changes from about 1.7:1 at birth to 1:1 at puberty.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:205
9) The greater and lesser tubercles are sites of muscle attachment on the proximal lateral aspect of the femur.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:189
10) The calcaneal tuberosity is the region of the foot that makes contact with the ground while walking.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:202
11) The distal end of the ulna is the olecranon process.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:190
12) The apex of the patella points distally.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:199
13) The pubic symphysis is a pad of hyaline cartilage between the two pubic bones.
|
Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:197
14) The ischium forms the posteroinferior region of the pelvic girdle.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:196
15) In the proximal row of carpals, there are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, and pisiform, from lateral to medial.
|
Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:192
18 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
8.3 Short
|
Answer Questions 1) The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________. \Answer: scapula Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:186
2) When examining the clavicle, one would find the ________ tubercle at the acromial end.
|
Answer: conoid Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:186-187
3) In anatomical position, the ________ is the most lateral bone in the leg.
|
Answer: fibula Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200
4) In the wrist, lateral to the lunate is the scaphoid, and medial to the lunate is the ________.
|
Answer: triquetrum Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:192
5) When the forearm is flexed at the elbow, the coronoid process of the ulna fits into the ________ fossa of the humerus.
|
Answer: coronoid Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:190
6) The large processes on the proximal end of the humerus are called tubercles, but the similar landmarks on the femur are called ________.
|
Answer: trochanters Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:199
7) The ________ is the tarsal bone lateral to the navicular.
|
Answer: cuboid Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:202
8) At the distal humerus, the trochlea articulates with the ________.
|
Answer: ulna Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:190
9) Most fingers and toes have a proximal, a middle, and a ________ phalanx.
|
Answer: distal Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:192
10) When you sit cross-legged for a while on a hard surface, your "rear end" hurts because you have been distributing weight directly over your bony ________ tuberosities.
|
Answer: ischial Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:196
19 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
11) The ________ spine lies between the greater and lesser sciatic notches.
|
Answer: ischial Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:195
12) The ________ ligaments run from each lateral surface of the sacrum to the ischial tuberosities to hold the pelvis together.
|
Answer: sacrotuberous Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:196
13) The head of the femur has a ________, from which a ligament extends that attaches to the inner surface of the acetabulum.
|
Answer: fovea capitis Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:197
14) An interosseous membrane is found between the tibia and the ________ in the lower extremity.
|
Answer: fibula Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:200
15) The pelvic girdle consists of the paired ________.
|
Answer: coxal bones Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:194
8.4 Essay Questions
1) What are the anatomical differences between male and female athletes that result in a greater incidence of knee problems for women?
|
Answer: The femur courses medially along its length toward the knee; because of the wider pelvis in women, this angle is even more pronounced. This results in a greater angle between the femur and the tibia, which is nearly vertical in position and leads to greater instability at the joint. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:197
2) Describe some of the anatomical characteristics of the female pelvis that are adaptations for childbearing.
|
Answer: The female pelvis is typically wider, shallower, and lighter to provide more room in the true pelvis, through which the infant must pass during childbirth. The pubic arch is broader as well, reflecting the wider pelvis. The pelvis itself is tilted forward and has a larger enclosed cavity. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:198
20 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
3) Identify the heads and all the notches of the radius and ulna, and explain how these bones articulate with each other and with the humerus.
|
Answer: The radius has an ulnar notch at its distal end that articulates with the head of the ulna. The proximal end of the ulna has a radial notch that articulates with the head of the radius. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the trochlea of the humerus. Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:190-191
4) Describe carpal tunnel syndrome.
|
Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome results from entrapment and/or compression of nerves passing through the carpal tunnel, on the anterior surface of the wrist. The median nerve is the primary nerve involved. When it is compressed, numbness, tingling, and weakness of the fingers ensues. Carpal tunnel syndrome is among a group of conditions called repetitive stress injuries. Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:194
5) Describe two anatomical characteristics of the glenohumeral joint that contribute to the high degree of mobility at the shoulder.
|
Answer: The scapula and upper limb are attached to the axial skeleton only by the clavicle; the scapula itself does not articulate with the axial skeleton. This allows the scapula to move freely over the thorax. Additionally, the humerus articulates with the essentially flat glenoid cavity, allowing for free rotation of the arm. Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:186
16) Which of these joints would be best described as having a number of bursae, tendon sheaths, an acromion process, and a coracoid process? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint
|
Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
|
|
Ref:224-226
17) Trauma at which of these joints is more likely to result in a bone fracture than a dislocation? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
|
Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
|
|
Ref:224
6 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
18) Which of these joints is stabilized by an iliofemoral ligament, a pubofemoral ligament, and an ischiofemoral ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint
|
Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:228
19) Which of these joints is a hinge joint, primarily involved in articulation with the ulna rather than the radius? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint
|
Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
|
|
Ref:226
20) Which of these joints utilizes the acetabulum? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:228
21) Which of these joints incorporates two bones, the first costal cartilage, and an articular disc? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:224
22) Which of these joints allows for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: E Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:232
7 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
23) Which of these joints is one of the most freely moving joints of the body, but requires the stability provided by the rotator cuff muscles to keep it in place? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:224
24) Which of these joints is stabilized by glenohumeral ligaments? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:224
25) Which of these joints is stabilized with an annular ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint E) ankle joint
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:226
26) Which structure(s) directly secures the humerus to the glenoid cavity? A) the rotator cuff B) the glenohumeral ligaments C) the coracohumeral ligament
D) the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:224
27) Which of these is not characteristic of a synchondrosis? A) absence of a joint cavity B) bone ends attached by collagen C) composed of hyaline cartilage
D) not highly movable
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:210
8 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
28) What structures are most important in keeping the knee from moving medially to laterally? A) the collateral ligaments B) the menisci C) the patellar ligament
D) the oblique popliteal ligaments
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:229-231
29) A joint capsule (articular capsule) has two layers. The function of the capsule’s internal layer is to A) strengthen the joint against tension. B) produce synovial fluid.
C) contain all of the nerves and blood vessels of the joint. D) act as a meniscus.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211-212
30) When the fibrous tissue of sutures ossifies, the resulting joint is called a A) symphysis. B) synchondrosis. C) syndesmosis.
D) synostosis.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:209
31) The condition in which excessive amounts of synovial fluid effuse into a joint cavity is called A) chondromalacia. B) ankylosing spondylitis. C) arthroplasty.
D) synovitis.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:237
32) An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the A) sagittal suture. B) interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna. C) pubic symphysis. D) intervertebral discs.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209
9 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
33) Which of the factors listed below contributes least to hip joint stability? A) muscle tone B) ligaments in the articular capsule C) the deep socket
D) ligaments attached to the head of the femur
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:228
34) An example of a pivot joint is the A) atlantoaxial joint B) distal tibiofibular joint. C) sagittal suture.
D) suture.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:220
35) An example of a saddle-shaped synovial joint is the A) radioulnar joint B) temporomandibular joint. C) carpometacarpal of digit 1.
D) glenohumeral joint.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:221
36) Articular cartilages are found both in symphyses and in A) sutures. B) synovial joints. C) synchondroses.
D) syndesmoses.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211
37) Synovial joint cavities are the only important exceptions to the rule that cavities in the body are always lined with epithelia. The synovial membrane consists of A) loose connective tissue. B) muscle tissue.
C) nervous tissue. D) dense irregular connective tissue.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:211
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38) The main function of synovial fluid is A) cooling. B) nourishing bone. C) removing metabolic wastes.
D) lubrication.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:211
39) In abduction of the fingers, the fifth finger moves medially, and the second finger moves A) anteriorly. B) laterally. C) medially.
D) by flexing toward the palm.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:217
40) By hyperextending a thigh at the hip joint, you could A) hit your chin with your knee. B) perform the same movement as circumduction. C) squeeze both thighs together.
D) bring your knee and leg to a position posterior to the thorax.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:214
41) The largest ball-and-socket joint in the body is the A) hip. B) shoulder. C) knee.
D) interphalangeal joint.
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:228
42) A condition that commonly leads to neck pain, ear problems, and pain when opening the mouth is A) osteoarthritis. B) temporomandibular disorder.
C) sutural disorders. D) gout.
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:223
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43) Besides helping to "lock" the knee, the posterior cruciate ligament A) prevents posterior sliding of the tibia when the leg is flexed at the knee. B) holds the patella to the tibia. C) prevents all medial rotation on the femoral condyles. D) breaks more frequently than the anterior cruciate ligament.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:230-231
44) As an essential stage in the locking mechanism of the knee, A) both cruciate and collateral ligaments tighten. B) the popliteal muscle contracts. C) the fibula is pulled out of the way.
D) the femur rotates laterally on the tibial condyles.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:230-231
45) Student’s elbow is an example of A) tendonitis. B) bursitis. C) osteoarthritis.
D) gout.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:235
46) A joint between a tooth and its socket is A) a suture. B) a gomphosis. C) an ankylosis.
D) a synostosis.
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:210
47) A chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs form is A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) osteoarthritis.
C) gout. D) Lyme disease.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:235
12 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
48) Which of the response pairs listed below does not correctly pair the joint category with its functional degree of mobility? A) suture: synarthrosis B) symphysis: amphiarthrosis
C) synchondrosis: amphiarthrosis D) synovial: diarthrosis
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209-210
49) Capsular ligaments A) are covered by synovial membrane. B) are located outside the joint capsule. C) are thickened parts of the joint capsule itself. D) separate the synovial cavity into compartments.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211-212
50) Cartilaginous joints A) allow free movement. B) allow movement in only one plane as a hinge. C) are seen in sutural lines. D) include symphyses.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:210
51) What movement occurs when one moves the foot from the anatomical position to point the toes laterally, with the foot flat on the floor? A) eversion B) lateral rotation
C) inversion D) plantar flexion
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:215
52) Articular discs are found in all of the following joints except the A) sternoclavicular. B) temporomandibular. C) tibiofemoral.
D) vertebrocostal.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:213
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53) Of the joints listed below, the only joint with a relatively shallow or flat articular surface is the A) ankle joint. B) hip joint.
C) shoulder joint. D) elbow joint.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:223-224
54) In pronation, A) the palm faces anteriorly. B) the radius and ulna are crossed. C) the forearm is laterally rotated. D) the ulna rotates, but the radius does not.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:217
55) What type of excessive motion do anterior ligaments resist? A) abduction B) adduction C) extension
D) flexion
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:220
56) An example of a diarthrotic synchondrosis A) is the epiphyseal plate. B) is the intertarsal joint. C) is the knee.
D) does not exist.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:210
57) An example of an amphiarthrotic cartilaginous joint is the A) epiphyseal plate. B) pubic symphysis. C) knee joint.
D) sternocostal joint.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:210
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58) The main movements occurring at the ankle joint are A) plantar flexion and dorsiflexion. B) inversion and eversion. C) abduction and adduction.
D) supination and pronation.
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Answer: A Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:232
59) Which of the following movements is not possible at the condyloid metacarpophalangeal joints of fingers 2-5? A) flexion B) circumduction
C) adduction D) rotation
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:221
60) An example of a multiaxial joint is A) the proximal radioulnar joint. B) an intervertebral joint, between the articular processes. C) the hip. D) the pubic symphysis.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:217, 219
61) The only category of articulations with a joint cavity is a A) fibrous joint. B) cartilaginous joint. C) synovial joint.
D) synostosis.
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Answer: C Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:210-211
62) Which of these statements about menisci is false? A) They contain fibrocartilage. B) They are found in all synovial joints. C) They can divide the joint cavity.
D) They can allow two movements at a single joint.
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:213
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63) Synovial fluid is A) identical to blood plasma. B) an extract from the bone marrow. C) a filtrate of the blood, with added glycoproteins. D) fluid from edema.
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211
64) Tendon sheaths A) surround all tendons. B) contain articular cartilages. C) differ from bursae in that they are not lubricating in function. D) wrap the tendons that are crowded in the carpal tunnel.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:213
65) By plantar flexing your feet at the ankle joints, you will A) stand on your toes. B) stand back on your heels. C) stand on the medial margins of your feet.
D) turn your big toes laterally.
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Answer: A Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:216-217
66) Gliding movements occur between all these joints except A) adjacent carpals. B) adjacent phalanges. C) articular processes of vertebrae.
D) temporomandibular joints.
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Answer: B Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:214, 222-224
67) Based on the definition of luxation, a subluxation must be A) a mild case of Lyme disease. B) rheumatoid arthritis on one side of the body only. C) reduction of a joint.
D) a partially dislocated joint.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:235
68) All of these stabilizing structures provide structural support to the hip joint except the A) iliofemoral ligament. B) ischiofemoral ligament. C) pubofemoral ligament.
D) ligament of the head of the femur.
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Answer: D Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:228-229
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69) A bursa differs from the synovial cavity of a joint in that it A) contains no synovial fluid. B) is not involved in lubrication. C) has no synovial membrane.
D) need not be attached to any bone.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:213
70) Pulling your shoulders back, or squaring them, involves which motion of the scapula? A) abduction B) pronation C) retraction
D) opposition
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Answer: C Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:216-217
71) A pre-adolescent has more joints than an adult because of these immovable cartilaginous joints. A) sutures B) epiphyseal plates
C) synovial joints D) gomphoses
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Answer: B Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:209
72) All of the following can be performed at the wrist except A) flexion and extension of the hand. B) circumduction of the hand. C) rotation of the hand.
D) abduction and adduction of the hand.
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Answer: C Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:221
73) Biaxial joints cannot A) abduct. B) adduct. C) flex.
D) rotate.
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Answer: D Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:218-219
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74) The lateral movement of the arms away from the body is called A) abduction. B) adduction. C) flexion.
D) extension.
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Answer: A Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:215
75) Expansion of the rib cage during inhalation is possible because the costovertebral joints are A) amphiarthrotic. B) biaxial. C) synchondroses.
D) synovial.
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Answer: D Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:220
9.2 True/False Questions
1) Synarthroses are freely movable joints.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209
2) One type of cartilage, fibrocartilage, characterizes all cartilaginous joints.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:210
3) The term synovial joint contains the root word ov, referring to ovum, or egg, because the synovial fluid is viscous like the white of the egg.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:211
4) The interosseous membrane is a type of syndesmosis.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:210
5) Synovial fluid is slippery because of glycoproteins that are secreted by fibroblasts located within the articular cartilage.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211
6) Typical synovial joints are supplied by blood vessels and nerve fibers.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:212
18 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
7) Hyaline cartilage forms many menisci, such as are found in the temporomandibular joint and the knee joint.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:213
8) Arthroplasty is the process of replacing a diseased joint with an artificial joint.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:237
9) The sternoclavicular joint (SC) is a modified hinge joint.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:224
10) Intracapsular ligaments, such as the cruciate ligaments, are covered with a synovial membrane.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:211-212
11) Amphiarthroses are more movable than diarthroses.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209
12) One could characterize a bursa as a sac of synovial fluid.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:213
13) A tendon sheath is an elongated membranous sac filled with synovial fluid that wraps around a tendon.
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Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:213
14) A person who states that they are "double-jointed" is capable of joint hyperextension and has more phalangeal joints than the average person.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:214
15) The atlantoaxial joint is a saddle joint.
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Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:220
9.3 Short
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Answer Questions 1) The glenohumeral joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. \Answer: ball-and-socket Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:221
19 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
2) This kind of joint is composed of very short connective tissue fibers that are continuous with the periosteum of the flat bone.
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Answer: suture Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209
3) This joint is structurally reinforced by talofibular and tibiofibular ligaments.
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Answer: ankle joint Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:232-233
4) An important factor in joint stabilization is ________, which is exerted by muscles even when there is no movement at that joint.
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Answer: muscle tone Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:220
5) A(n) ________ is a specialized bursa that wraps around a tendon to reduce friction.
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Answer: tendon sheath Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:213
6) Perhaps the simplest synovial joint, a(n) ________ joint occurs when two flat surfaces of bones move over each other.
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Answer: gliding Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:213
7) This is the action by which the thumb touches the tips of the other fingers.
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Answer: Opposition Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:217
8) ________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally.
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Answer: Supination Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:217
9) The sternoclavicular joint is a(n) ________ joint.
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Answer: saddle Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:224
10) Excessive dorsiflexion of the ankle can overstretch tibiofibular ligaments, resulting in a special type of injury known as a(n) ________ ankle sprain.
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Answer: syndesmosis Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:234
11) The most freely moving large joint of the body is the ________ joint.
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Answer: shoulder (glenohumeral) Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:224
12) Baseball players often damage the ________ cuff at the shoulder region.
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Answer: rotator Diff: 1 Page
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Ref:224
20 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
13) To ________ the foot, move the plantar surface laterally.
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Answer: evert Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:216-217
14) This is a type of arthritis in which crystals of urate accumulate in the synovial membranes.
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Answer: gout (gouty arthritis) Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:236
15) Synovial joints form from ________ tissue that fills the spaces between the cartilaginous bone models in the late embryo.
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Answer: mesenchymal Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:237
9.4 Essay Questions
1) Describe the joint-associated problems that can occur as normal changes to the articular cartilage as an individual ages.
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Answer: Osteoarthritis to some degree, will typically affect most individuals as they grow older. Damage done to joints when an individual is young can cause problems as a person ages. Metalloproteinase enzymes released during joint damage may break down the matrix of the articular cartilage. As time goes by, recurring microdamage diminishes the thickness of the articular cartilage and ultimately results in chronic inflammation and diminished mobility at the joint(s). Regular exercise and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can minimize inflammation, alleviating some of the symptoms of osteoarthritis. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:235
2) Describe the three types of fibrous joints, including examples of each.
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Answer: Sutures are located between many of the bones of the skull, with fibers of the joint continuous with the periosteum of the adjacent bones. Syndesmoses are connected by long fibrous ligaments, such as those found at the distal tibiofibular articulation. Considerable motion is possible at these types of joints, even though there is no synovial capsule. Gomphoses are found between the roots of the teeth and the tooth sockets of the mandible and maxilla. The teeth are held in place with numerous, short periodontal ligaments. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:209-210
3) Compare the structure and function of the two major joint surfaces of the wrist.
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Answer: The radiocarpal joint is a condyloid joint between the radius and the scaphoid and lunate. This joint allows for movements of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. The intercarpal joints between adjacent carpals are planar joints, which allow for gliding movements. Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:221, 227
21 Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
4) Characterize articular cartilages.
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Answer: Articular cartilages are found at diarthrotic synovial joints. They cover the ends (epiphyses) of articulating bones and minimize friction and enhance resistance to compressive forces within the joint capsule. Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage. Diff: 2 Page
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Ref:211
5) Name the major components of the synovial joint of the knee.
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Answer: Articular cartilages, tendon of the quadriceps muscle, patellar ligament, medial and lateral patellar retinacula, medial and lateral menisci, oblique popliteal ligament, arcuate popliteal ligament, anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments, tibial and fibular collateral ligaments, femur, tibia, fibula, patella. Diff: 3 Page
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Ref:229-232
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