A+P II- Exam 2

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The heart pumps about ____ liters of blood a day and contracts about _____ times in a lifetime.
A. 1,000 liters; 1 billion
B. 1,200 liters; 2 billion
C. 3,000 liters; 2 billion
D. 7,000 liters; 2.5 billion
E. 8,256 liters; 3 billion

D. 7,000 liters; 2.5 billion

Circulation is vital because it
A. supplies oxygen and nutrients to and removes wastes from tissues.
B. keeps the heart pumping.
C. delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen.
D. keeps the blood vessels supple.
E. inflates the lungs.

A. supplies oxygen and nutrients to and removes waste from tissues

The pulmonary circuit
A. sends deoxygenated blood to the heart.
B. brings deoxygenated blood from the tissues.
C. sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
D. brings oxygenated blood to the tissues.
E. none of the above.

C. sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs

The systemic circuit
A. sends deoxygenated blood to the heart
B. brings oxygenated blood from the tissues
C. sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs
D. sends oxygenated blood to the tissues
E. none of the above.

D. sends oxygenated blood to the tissues

When the ventricular walls contract,
A. the mitral valve opens and the tricuspid valve closes.
B. the tricuspid valve opens and the mitral valve closes.
C. the mitral and tricuspid valves close.
D. the mitral and tricuspid valves open.
E. the aortic and pulmonary valves close.

C. the mitral and tricuspid valves close

The loose-fitting sac around the heart is the
A. parietal pericardium.
B. visceral pericardium.
C. epicardium.
D. endocardium.
E. exocardium.

A. parietal pericardium

The skeleton of the heart consists of
A. bone within the myocardium.
B. bone within the interatrial septum.
C. fibrous connective tissue in the endocardium.
D. fibrous connective tissue encircling the atrioventricular orifices.
E. connective tissue and adipose tissue.

D. fibrous connective tissue encircling the atrioventricular orifices

Which of the following is the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?
A. Right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, tricuspid valve
B. Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve
C. Tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle
D. Pulmonary valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle
E. Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve

B. right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve

The inner lining of the heart is the
A. epicardium.
B. myocardium.
C. endocardium.
D. pericardium.
E. exocardium.

C. endocardium

The right atrium receives blood directly from
A. the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava only.
B. the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus.
C. the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins.
D. the aorta.
E. the pulmonary veins.

B. the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus

Atrial natriuretic factor is a peptide hormone that
A. is released from certain muscle cells of the heart.
B. inhibits the release of renin from kidney cells.
C. inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
D. lowers blood pressure.
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

In mitral valve prolapse, the mitral valve
A. is missing as a result of abnormal development.
B. has an extra cusp.
C. bulges into the left atrium during ventricular relaxation.
D. bulges into the left atrium during ventricular contraction.
E. shreds.

D. bulges into the left atrium during ventricular contraction

The pain of angina pectoris comes from a blockage in an artery that supplies the
A. left arm and shoulder.
B. neck and jaw.
C. heart.
D. sternum.
E. legs.

C. heart

Which of the following is true about the heart?
A. The apex end points downward at about the 5th intercostal space.
B. The heart is located lateral to the lungs.
C. The average adult heart is about 8 cm long and 5 cm wide.
D. The base of the heart lies beneath the fourth rib.
E. Its wall has four layers.

A. the apex end points downward at about the 5th intercostal space

Which of the following layers of the heart and their functions are correctly matched?
A. Epicardium-protective inner lining of the heart chambers and valves
B. Myocardium-muscular contractions that force blood out of the heart
C. Endocardium-protective outer covering
D. Exocardium-protection of the pericardium.
E. none of the above

B. myocardium-muscular contractions that force blood out of the heart

Which of the following correctly matches the valve to its function?
A. Tricuspid valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right to the left atrium
B. Pulmonary valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta
C. Mitral valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
D. Aortic valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk
E. Ventricular valve-permits two way blood flow, depending upon needs.

C. mitral valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

Blood flow to the right side of the heart muscle decreases due to constriction of the _____, and decreased blood flow to the heart tissue can result in _____.
A. left coronary artery; mitral valve prolapse
B. right pulmonary artery; endocarditis
C. right coronary artery; ischemia
D. left coronary vein; myocardial infarction
E. none of the above

C. right coronary artery; ischemia

Which of the following waves of an ECG pattern is/are correctly described?
A. P wave-depolarization of atria
B. QRS complex-repolarization of ventricles
C. T wave-depolarization of ventricles
D. QRST complex-depolarization of ventricles
E. all of the above

A. P wave-depolarization of atria

The correct sequence of parts that carry cardiac impulses is
A. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle
B. AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, SA node
C. SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle
D. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers
E. Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node, AV bundle

D. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers

Impulses that the vagus nerve carries to the heart
A. are parasympathetic and increase heart rate.
B. are parasympathetic and decrease heart rate.
C. are sympathetic and increase heart rate.
D. are sympathetic and decrease heart rate.
E. do not affect heart rate.

B. are parasympathetic and decrease heart rate

The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A. Purkinje fibers.
B. bundle of His.
C. sinoatrial node.
D. atrioventricular node.
E. AV bundle.

C. sinoatrial node

Listening with a stethoscope just to the right near the tip of the sternum, sounds come most distinctly from the
A. aortic valve.
B. tricuspid valve.
C. pulmonary valve.
D. mitral valve.
E. venular valve.

B. triscuspid valve

In an ECG pattern, the P wave is caused by
A. polarization of atrial muscle fibers.
B. polarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
C. depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.
D. depolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
E. none of the above.

C. depolarization of atrial muscle fibers

In an ECG pattern, the T wave is caused by
A. polarization of atrial muscle fibers.
B. repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
C. depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.
D. depolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
E. defibrillation.

B. repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers

In an ECG pattern, the PQ interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the
A. SA node to the atrial muscle fibers.
B. SA node to the Purkinje fibers.
C. AV node to the atrial muscle fibers.
D. AV node to the ventricular muscle fibers.
E. SA node through the AV node.

E. SA node through the AV node

The effect on the heart of excess potassium ion concentration usually is
A. increased rate and increased force of contraction.
B. decreased rate and increased force of contraction.
C. decreased rate and decreased force of contraction.
D. increased rate and decreased force of contraction.
E. cessation of the heartbeat.

C. decreased rate and decreased force of contraction

An abnormally slow heart rate is termed
A. tachycardia.
B. bradycardia.
C. fibrillation.
D. cardioversion.
E. lagocardia.

B. bradycardia

Which of the following is most life threatening?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Ventricular flutter
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Ventricular fibrillation
E. Tachycardia

D. ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following might serve as a secondary pacemaker for the heart?
A. AV node
B. Purkinje fibers
C. Both AV node and Purkinje fibers
D. Neither AV node nor Purkinje fibers
E. The tricuspid valve.

C. both AV node and Purkinje fibers

Cells of the conducting system in the heart are more sensitive to which ion?
A. Sodium
B. Iron
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
E. Lithium

C. potassium

Once cells in the SA node reach threshold,
A. an action potential is triggered.
B. a heart attack occurs.
C. nothing happens until the AV node is innervated.
D. the heart stops beating.
E. the pacemaker is deactivated.

A. an action potential is triggered

Which of the following gases does endothelium release?
A. Nitric oxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Methane
E. Nitrous oxide

A. nitric oxide

A person warming up after being cold feels a warm rush as blood flows quickly to the peripheral appendages. Nitric oxide is important in this situation because it
A. raises blood pressure.
B. raises blood temperature.
C. relaxes the smooth muscle in the blood vessel wall.
D. enhances gas exchange.
E. all of the above.

C. relaxes the smooth muscle in the blood vessel wall

Because net inward pressure in venular capillary ends is less than net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of capillaries
A. more fluid flows into the capillaries than moves out.
B. the lymphatic vessels push fluid into the capillaries.
C. the pressure in the venules increases.
D. more fluid leaves the capillaries than returns.
E. none of the above occurs.

D. more fluid leaves the capillaries than returns

Which type of blood vessel holds the greatest volume of blood?
A. Artery
B. Arteriole
C. Capillary
D. Vein
E. Heart vessel

D. vein

Water and dissolved substances leave the arteriole end of a capillary due to ____, and enter the venule end of a capillary due to ______.
A. hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure; active transport being greater than osmotic pressure
B. osmotic pressure being higher than hydrostatic pressure; hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure
C. hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure; osmotic pressure being higher than hydrostatic pressure
D. osmosis; active transport
E. none of the above

C. hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure; osmotic pressure being higher than hydrostatic pressure

The mechanism that ensures the volume of blood discharged from the heart is equal to the volume entering its chambers is ______ law of the heart.
A. Boyle’s
B. Frank-Starling’s
C. Dalton’s
D. Newton’s
E. Copernicus’

B. Frank-Starling’s

Sympathetic stimulation increases
A. end-diastolic volume.
B. stroke volume.
C. end-systolic volume.
D. cardiac output.
E. none of the above.

B. stroke volume

When venous pressure is too low, ____________ stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.
A. parasympathetic reflexes
B. sympathetic reflexes
C. somatic reflexes
D. carbon dioxide levels
E. none of the above.

B. sympathetic reflexes

When smooth muscles in the walls of the veins are stimulated to contract
A. blood flow slows.
B. blood flow speeds up.
C. blood pressure decreases.
D. blood pressure increases.
E. heart rate decreases.

D. blood pressure increases

Plasma proteins in capillaries help to
A. maintain the osmotic pressure of the blood.
B. decrease the osmotic pressure of the blood.
C. maintain the hydrostatic pressure of the blood.
D. decrease the hydrostatic pressure of the blood.
E. none of the above.

A. maintain the osmotic pressure of the blood

The blood pressure in the large systemic arteries is greatest during
A. atrial systole.
B. ventricular systole.
C. ventricular diastole.
D. atrial diastole.
E. ventricular relaxation.

B. ventricular systole

Which of the following helps return blood to the heart?
A. Positive intrathoracic pressure
B. Valves in the arteries
C. Contracting skeletal muscles
D. Capillary action
E. None of the above

C. contracting skeletal muscles

Factors that increase heart rate and blood pressure include
A. emotional responses.
B. exercise
C. increase in body temperature.
D. epinephrine secretion.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above

Arterial systolic pressure is most closely associated with
A. atrial contraction.
B. ventricular contraction.
C. atrial relaxation.
D. ventricular relaxation.
E. aortic relaxation.

B. ventricular contraction

Pulse pressure is calculated by
A. adding systolic and diastolic pressures.
B. multiplying systolic and diastolic pressures.
C. subtracting systolic pressure from diastolic pressure.
D. subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure.
E. dividing diastolic pressure by systolic pressure.

D. subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure

Angiotensin II increases blood pressure by
A. increasing peripheral resistance.
B. releasing renin.
C. inhibiting the release of aldosterone.
D. promoting the excretion of sodium.
E. releasing testosterone.

A. increasing peripheral resistance

Kidney disease can cause hypertension by
A. activating the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
B. stimulating the secretion of aldosterone
C. increasing retention of sodium and water.
D. narrowing the lumens of renal blood vessels.
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

The pulmonary trunk divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries about __ centimeters above its origin.
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 30

A. 5

The celiac artery provides blood to the
A. diaphragm.
B. large intestine.
C. liver and spleen.
D. adrenal glands.
E. gonads.

C. liver and spleen

Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Brachiocephalic artery
D. Left subclavian artery
E. Left common carotid artery

B.pulmonary artery

The external carotid arteries branch to structures in the
A. scalp.
B. face.
C. jaw.
D. base of the skull.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above

The structures that contain chemoreceptors that detect blood concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen are
A. aortic bodies.
B. aortic sinuses.
C. aortic arterioles.
D. capillary buds.
E. venules.

A. aortic bodies

Which artery is incorrectly matched to its location?
A. Inferior mesenteric artery; colon and rectum
B. Thyrocervical arteries; thymus.
C. Celiac arteries; liver, spleen, and upper gastrointestinal tract
D. Phrenic arteries; diaphragm
E. Popliteal; behind the knee

B. thyrocervical arteries; thymus

Which of the following supplies blood to parts of the intestinal tract?
A. Phrenic arteries
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Lumbar artery
D. Middle sacral artery
E. Brachiocephalic artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

The radial and ulnar veins merge to form the _______ vein.
A. jugular
B. azygos
C. brachial
D. cephalic
E. axillary

C. brachial

The longest vein in the body is the
A. superior vena cava.
B. great saphenous vein.
C. internal iliac vein.
D. hepatic portal vein.
E. aorta.

B. great saphenous vein

Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the
A. external jugular vein.
B. subclavian vein.
C. inferior vena cava.
D. cephalic vein.
E. superior vena cava.

A. external jugular vein

When a person’s pulse is taken by palpation near the thumb on the wrist, which artery is felt?
A. Brachial artery
B. Ulnar artery
C. Radial artery
D. Palmar arch arteries
E. Lumbar artery

C. radial artery

Heart rate in a fetus is about ____, in a newborn about _____, and in an adult about ___.
A. 145; 140; 70
B. 70; 140; 145
C. 100; 100; 100
D. 200; 160; 120
E. 120; 100; 80

A. 145; 140; 70

Which of the following is due to an aging cardiovascular system?
A. The tunica interna thickens
B. The direction of blood flow in some capillaries reverses.
C. Arteries become less rigid.
D. Veins lose collagen.
E. All of the above.

A. the tunica interna thickens

Sudden cardiac arrest can result from
A. an artery blocked with plaque.
B. scar tissue from a previous heart attack.
C. accelerated heart rate.
D. an irregular heartbeat.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above

A left ventricular assist device
A. can replace a heart permanently.
B. can substitute for the atria.
C. can maintain cardiac function until a donor heart becomes available.
D. is used in people who have less than a month to live and are not candidates for a heart transplant.
E. is routinely used in people who have had heart attacks.

C. can maintain cardiac function until a donor heart becomes available

Small areas of the myocardium contracting chaotically is called
A. ventriculation.
B. fibrillation.
C. bradycardia.
D. tachycardia.
E. myocardial infarction.

B. fibrillation

Bruce has colorectal cancer that has spread to his lymphatic system. He is given a drug that is an angiogenesis inhibitor. The drug works by
A. stimulating new blood vessels to serve tissue damaged by the cancer.
B. starving tumors by cutting off their blood supplies.
C. halting cell division only in tumor cells.
D. cutting off the supply of ATP to cancer cells.
E. rerouting blood vessels to overwhelm and strangle the tumor.

B. starving tumors by cutting off their blood supplies

In the arterial disease atherosclerosis
A. plaque accumulates on the interior walls of arteries.
B. blood flow through affected arteries slows.
C. risk of a thrombus or embolus forming increases.
D. arteriosclerosis may develop.
E. all of the above may happen.

E. all of the above may happen

Marjorie suffers from phlebitis. She has
A. inflammation of her veins.
B. too much phlegm in her throat.
C. extra capillaries in her legs.
D. inflammation of her arteries.
E. inflammation of capillaries.

A. inflammation of her veins

A sphygmomanometer measures
A. clotting time.
B. the white blood cell differential.
C. hematocrit.
D. brain function.
E. blood pressure.

E. blood pressure

Astronauts returning to earth feel unsteady because
A. blood volume dropped during prolonged exposure to microgravity so blood pressure is too low back on earth.
B. blood volume rose during prolonged exposure to microgravity so blood pressure is too low back on earth.
C. blood volume dropped during prolonged exposure to microgravity so blood pressure is too high back on earth.
D. blood volume rose during prolonged exposure to microgravity so blood pressure is too high back on earth.
E. the body adapted to a faster heart rate in microgravity and on earth it suddenly slows.

A. blood volume dropped during prolonged exposure to microgravity so blood pressure is too low back on earth.

Which of the following is not a normal response to physical exercise?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased ventricular contraction
C. Increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles
D. Increased blood flow to the abdominal viscera
E. Maintenance of blood flow to the kidneys and brain

D. increased blood flow to the abdominal viscera

Tim runs 5 to 8 miles a day. He has an enlarged heart and low heart rate and blood pressure. He most likely has
A. coronary artery disease.
B. an arrhythmia.
C. a very healthy cardiovascular system.
D. Marfan syndrome.
E. atherosclerosis.

C. a very healthy cardiovascular system

Which of the following is not a factor that increases risk of developing atherosclerosis?
A. A diet high in unsaturated fats
B. High blood pressure
C. Lack of physical exercise
D. Obesity
E. Low blood pressure

E. low blood pressure

The apical heartbeat is heard by listening between the fifth and sixth ribs about 7.5 cm left of the midline.

True

The coronary sinus drains blood from the wall of the heart into the left atrium.

False

The smaller branches of the coronary arteries have some anastomoses between vessels.

True

The visceral pericardium lines the pericardial cavity, whereas the parietal pericardium covers the surface of the heart.

False

The SA node relays nerve impulses into the AV bundle of the interventricular septum and the AV node is responsible for the rhythmic contractions of the heart.

False

Capillary walls consist of a single layer of epithelial cells and they exchange substances in the blood for substances in the tissue fluid surrounding body cells.

True

Arteries are strong, elastic vessels that carry blood to the heart.

False

Metarterioles connect arterioles and venules, and allow blood to bypass the capillaries.

True

The distribution of blood in capillary pathways is largely controlled by the action of precapillary sphincters.

True

Osmotic pressure forces molecules in the blood out through capillary walls.

False

Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by a precapillary sphincter, which opens or closes due to the requirements of the cells the capillary supplies.

True

Lipid-soluble substances diffuse through pores in capillary membranes, whereas lipid-insoluble substances diffuse through most areas of a capillary membrane.

False

Histamine increases capillary membrane permeability, which can result in an edematous and painful condition.

True

Venules continue from capillaries to form veins, which return blood to the atria.

True

Central venous pressure is the pressure in the inferior vena cava at the central point of the abdomen.

False

Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.

False

The aorta is the largest artery in the pulmonary circuit.

False

The great saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body.

True

When the left ventricle contracts, blood passes into the _____.

Aorta

The _____ _____ is the potential space between the parietal and visceral pericardial membranes.

Pericardial cavity

Blood is supplied to the myocardium by means of the _____ arteries.

Coronary

A mass of interconnected cardiac muscle cells that act together as a group constitutes a(n) _____ _____.

Functional syncytium

The blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to allow the exchange of gases between the blood and tissue fluid are _____.

Capillaries

Strong elastic blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are _____.

Arteries

The blood pressure in the right atrium is called _____ _____ _____.

Central venous pressure

The pressure that remains in the systemic arterial system during ventricular relaxation is called _____ pressure.

Diastolic

The blood in the arterioles and arteries of the pulmonary circuit is high in _______ and low in ________.

Carbon dioxide; oxygen

The descending aorta divides near the brim of the pelvis to form the right and left _____ _____ _____.

Common iliac arteries

The phrenic arteries supply blood to the ________.

Diaphragm

The ________ arteries bring blood to muscles in the back, neck, and thoracic wall.

Costocervical

The _______ vein drains muscle in the thoracic and abdominal walls.

Azygos

About __ percent of women over age 80 and men over age 60 have one or more narrowed coronary arteries.

60%

In aging arteries, production of _______ in arteries decreases.

Elastin

Formation of new blood vessels is called ___________.

Angiogenesis

Disease-causing agents are called
A. bugs.
B. germs.
C. pathogens.
D. antibodies.
E. enemies.

C. pathogens

Fluid is kept from accumulating in tissue spaces by
A. sweat
B. the circulatory system
C. the urinary system
D. the lymphatic system
E. breathing

D. the lymphatic system

The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)
A. artery.
B. arteriole.
C. vein.
D. capillary.
E. metarteriole.

C. vein

The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
A. thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
B. lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct.
C. intestinal duct and left intercostal duct.
D. bronchomediastinal duct and subclavian
duct. E. none of the above.

A. thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

Foreign particles that are injected into the skin enter the lymphatic system
A. rapidly.
B. slowly.
C. not at all, because lymphatic valves prevent this.
D. not at all, because the skin lacks lymphatic capillaries.
E. only if they come from an insect sting.

A. rapidly

After lymph leaves the collecting ducts, it enters _____ and becomes part of the ______.
A. arteries; serum
B. lymphatics; spleen
C. veins; plasma
D. lymph nodes; lymphatic trunks
E. capillaries; blood supply

C. veins; plasma

The formation of lymph increases as a result of
A. increasing osmotic pressure in blood capillaries.
B. increasing hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluid.
C. decreasing volume of tissue fluid.
D. decreasing protein concentration in tissue fluid.
E. increasing the numbers of white blood cells that leave the blood for the lymph.

B. increasing hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluid

Lymph differs from plasma in that
A. lymph has more protein than plasma.
B. plasma has more protein than lymph.
C. lymph has white blood cells, whereas plasma does not.
D. lymph is thin and plasma is viscous.
E. lymph is clear and plasma is red.

B. plasma has more protein than lymph

The primary functions of lymph include
A. returning proteins to the tissue fluid.
B. transporting foreign particles to the kidneys.
C. returning proteins to the bloodstream and transporting foreign particles to the lymph nodes.
D. carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.
E. none of the above.

C. returning proteins to the bloodstream and transporting foreign particles to the lymph nodes.

The functions of the lymphatic system do not include
A. returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream.
B. returning small proteins to the bloodstream.
C. transporting hormones to intestinal smooth muscle.
D. transporting the products of lipid digestion from the intestine to the liver.
E. protecting the body against infection.

C. transporting hormones to intestinal smooth muscle

Tissue fluid is ______ and lymph is ______.
A. forced out of lymph vessels; absorbed into lymph vessels
B. forced out of blood plasma; absorbed into blood capillaries
C. rich in proteins; rich in proteins and foreign particles
D. forced out of blood plasma and generally lacking in proteins; absorbed into lymph capillaries
E. clear; red

D. forced out of blood plasma and generally lacking in proteins; absorbed into lymph capillaries

Stephanie has her cancerous right breast removed, and the surgeon also removes lymph nodes in the axillary region, to prevent spread of the cancer. As a result, Stephanie’s right arm
A. loses its blood supply.
B. receives too much blood and swells.
C. becomes edematous.
D. loses tissue fluid.
E. becomes paralyzed

C. becomes edematous

The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels and nerves pass is called the
A. sinus.
B. capsule.
C. nodule.
D. hilum.
E. bleb.

D. hilum

The lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph mainly from the
A. scalp and face.
B. upper limb and mammary gland.
C. thoracic viscera.
D. abdominal viscera.
E. brain.

B upper limb and mammary gland

Lymph nodes are grouped throughout the body except in the
A. lungs.
B. central nervous system.
C. mesentery.
D. inguinal connective tissue.
E. axillary regions.

B. central nervous system

The supratrochlear lymph nodes are located near the
A. hand.
B. wrist.
C. elbow.
D. axillary region.
E. shoulder

C. elbow

A lymph node consists of
A. compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and macrophages.
B. afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface.
C. efferent vessels circulating lymph out of the node at its hilum.
D. lymph nodules.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above

Cells in a lymph node that engulf and destroy damaged cells, foreign substances, and cellular debris are
A. macrophages.
B. lymphocytes.
C. mast cells.
D. cytokines.
E. all of the above.

A. macrophages

Henry has a cut on his thigh that becomes infected. The lymph nodes in his __________ enlarge.
A. cervical region
B. thoracic region
C. inguinal region
D. supratrochlear region
E. trophic region.

C. inguinal region

The spleen
A. is the largest lymphatic organ.
B. contains nodules similar to lymphatic nodules.
C. contains many phagocytes.
D. looks like a large lymph node.
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

The spleen
A. consists of two lobes in the mediastinum.
B. resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules.
C. produces T lymphocytes.
D. produces B lymphocytes
E. none of the above

B. resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules

T lymphocytes mature in the thymus in response to
A. cytokines.
B. antibodies.
C. interferon.
D. thymosins.
E. thymonucleins.

D. thymosins

The tissues of the spleen are called
A. red and white pulp.
B. black and blue pulp.
C. frangible particles.
D. cellular and fibrous.
E. tonsils and Peyer’s patches.

A. red and white pulp

Innate defenses are
A. fast and non specific.
B. slow and non specific.
C. fast and specific.
D. slow and specific.
E. obtained by taking vaccines.

A. fast and nonspecific

A virus differs from other pathogens in that it is
A. larger.
B. more dangerous.
C. not capable of reproduction outside a living cell.
D. multicellular.
E. more complex.

C. not capable of reproduction outside a living cell

Inflammation is a response to
A. heat.
B. infection.
C. chemical exposure.
D. ultraviolet light.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above

The mononuclear phagocytic system includes
A. T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes.
B. monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils.
C. basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils.
D. mast cells and megakaryocytes.
E. plasma cells and thymocytes.

B. monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils

Interferon is a group of hormonelike peptides that cells produce in response to
A. chemical irritants.
B. viruses.
C. bacteria.
D. malarial parasites.
E. fungi.

B. viruses

The most active phagocytic cells in circulating blood are
A. neutrophils and monocytes.
B. neutrophils and macrophages.
C. monocytes and macrophages.
D. lymphocytes and monocytes.
E. mast cells and plasma cells.

A. neutrophils and monocytes

Interleukin-1 secretion causes
A. an allergic response.
B. an antibody response.
C. a fever.
D. cytokine secretion.
E. none of the above.

C. a fever

Marsha gets a splinter in her finger. What is her body’s response to any microbe that might try to enter her body as a result of the splinter breaking the skin?
A. innate defense.
B. adaptive defense.
C. specific defense.
D. cytotoxic T cell response.
E. antibody response.

A. innate defense

Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier against microorganisms?
A. Saliva
B. Urine
C. Tears
D. Diarrhea
E. Mucus

D. diarrhea

_________ initiate(s) a cascade effect in response to foreign proteins in the body.
A. Antibodies
B. Interferon
C. The complement system
D. Natural killer cells
E. The insult system

C. the complement system

Low-grade fever is an effective defense for short periods of time because it
A. increases iron in the blood.
B. includes pyrogens that destroy the pathogens.
C. increases temperature, which slows the growth of bacteria.
D. slows the attack of phagocytes.
E. forces the person to stay in bed.

C. increases temperature, which slows the growth of bacteria

An immune response that is slower but more specific for the pathogen is the
A. innate defense.
B. adaptive defense.
C. nonspecific defense.
D. complement system.
E. delayed response.

B. adaptive defense

A transplant recipient’s body rejects a transplanted organ because her ______ does not match that of the donor closely enough.
A. major histocompatibility complex
B. mononuclear phagocytic system
C. cytokine profile
D. memory T cell collection
E. antibody response

A. major histocompatibility complex

Which of the following is part of the adaptive immune response?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Inflammation
C. Production of antibodies
D. Synthesis of defensins
E. All of the above.

C. production of antibodies

Drugs used to reduce the tissue rejection reaction following the transplantation of tissue from one person to another
A. stimulate the formation of antibodies by the recipient’s cells.
B. dampen the recipient’s immune response.
C. reduce the differences between donor proteins and recipient proteins.
D. reduce the chance of infection in the recipient.
E. replace antigens on the recipient’s cells to match the transplanted tissue.

B. dampen the recipient’s immune response

The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are
A. lymphocytes and macrophages.
B. neutrophils and lymphocytes.
C. monocytes and macrophages.
D. lymphocytes and monocytes.
E. erythrocytes and bone marrow stem cells.

A. lymphocytes and macrophages

A transplant recipient may be able to eventually discontinue immunosuppressant drugs if
A. the donor receives bone marrow stem cells from the recipient.
B. the donor and recipient are both under age 30.
C. the transplanted organ is not vital.
D. the donor received a well-matched transplant from the recipient.
E. the recipient receives bone marrow stem cells from the donor.

D. the donor received a well-matched transplant from the recipient

T lymphocytes are responsible for
A. programming macrophages.
B. producing antibodies.
C. cell-mediated immunity.
D. humoral immunity.
E. producing collectins.

C. cell-mediated immunity

The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgX

D. IgG

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing a disease is
A. naturally acquired active immunity.
B. artificially acquired active immunity.
C. artificially acquired passive immunity.
D. naturally acquired passive immunity.
E. vaccine acquired active immunity.

A. naturally acquired active immunity

Which of the following are cytokines?
A. Antibodies and antigens
B. Colony stimulating factors, interferons, interleukins, tumor necrosis factor
C. Macrophages and lymphocytes
D. Histamine and leukotrienes
E. Autoantibodies and immunosuppressants

B. Colony stimulating factors, interferons, interleukins, tumor necrosis factor

The antibodies produced in allergic reactions
A. are called allergens.
B. are secreted by mast cells.
C. belong to the immunoglobulin E group.
D. attack pathogens or nonself cells.
E. are all of the above.

C. belong to the immunoglobulin E group

Following a primary immune response, the cells that give rise to memory cells are
A. B cells only.
B. T cells only.
C. both B cells and T cells.
D. neither B cells nor T cells.
E. macrophages and mast cells.

C. both B cells and T cells

Cytotoxic T cells destroy
A. cytotoxic cells.
B. T cells.
C. all antigen-bearing cells.
D. cancer cells and virus-containing cells.
E. B cells

D. cancer cells and virus-containing cells

Cytotoxic T cells destroy their target cells by releasing perforin, which cuts holes in
A. cell membranes.
B. lysosomes.
C. ribosomes.
D. DNA molecules.
E. nuclei.

A. cell membranes

A newborn is protected against certain digestive and respiratory infectious thanks to IgA from the mother’s
A. milk.
B. blood.
C. intestine.
D. placenta.
E. sweat.

A. milk

Injections of gamma globulin are sometimes given to provide
A. naturally acquired active immunity.
B. artificially acquired active immunity.
C. artificially acquired passive immunity.
D. naturally acquired passive immunity.
E. naturally acquired autoimmunity.

C. artificially acquired passive immunity.

In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward
A. foreign cells.
B. cells of the body ("self")
C. all antigens.
D. all antibodies.
E. only cells of the lymphatic system.

B. cells of the body ("self")

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. All of the above

E. all of the above

An antigen is ______, whereas an antibody is ______.
A. a foreign substance such as a protein or a polysaccharide to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with an antigen to eliminate the antigen
B. an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to bacteria; a foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune reaction
C. a hapten molecule that is complex in shape; an enzyme produced by the thymus gland that neutralizes antigens
D. only on a pathogen; only in a human body.
E. none of the above

A. a foreign substance such as a protein or a polysaccharide to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with an antigen to eliminate the antigen

Complement proteins, which are activated when IgG or IgM antibodies bind antigen,
A. stimulate chemotaxis, in which neutrophils and macrophages are repelled from the affected area.
B. cause opsonization, which coats the antibody-antigen complexes in a way that attracts phagocytes.
C. cause lysis of the T cells.
D. stimulate cytokine release.
E. do none of the above.

B. cause opsonization, which coats the antibody-antigen complexes in a way that attracts phagocytes.

Plasma cells
A. increase the volume of the blood plasma.
B. produce antibody molecules.
C. directly attack antigens.
D. produce interferon.
E. die during active infection.

B. produce antibody molecules

A primary immune response ______, and a secondary immune response ______.
A. is very important; is less important to the body’s ability to protect itself
B. produces antibodies within five to ten days of exposure to antigens; produces antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen
C. is very rapid in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens; is very slow in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens
D. takes place in the lymph nodes; takes place in scattered lymphatic tissue
E. occurs in children; occurs in adults

B. produces antibodies within five to ten days of exposure to antigens; produces antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen

In the cellular immune response
A. B cells produce antibodies directly against antigens.
B. T cells produce antibodies directly against antigens.
C. T cells attach directly to antigens and destroy them.
D. T cells attack healthy body cells.
E. T cells activate macrophages.

C. T cells attach directly to antigens and destroy them

A vaccine produces its effects by
A. directly attacking the antigens and neutralizing them.
B. chemotaxis, the attraction of antigens to areas where the vaccine can destroy them.
C. stimulating a primary immune response.
D. stimulating a tertiary immune response.
E. activating autoantibodies.

C. stimulating a primary immune response

B cells divide and differentiate into _________ which produce and secrete antibodies.
A. T cells
B. antibodies
C. megakaryocytes
D. plasma cells
E. serum cells

D. plasma cells

The anti-Rh factor is an example of an
A. IgG.
B. IgM.
C. IgE.
D. IgA.
E. IgRh.

A. IgG

Newborns can acquire __________ immunity through breast milk.
A. specific
B. passive
C. active
D. innate
E. lactal

B. passive

Heart valve cells can be damaged through
A. specific immunity.
B. innate immunity.
C. autoimmunity.
D. passive immunity.
E. active immunity.

C. autoimmunity

A vaccine can halt an infection in a population if everyone is vaccinated due to
A. herd immunity.
B. naturally acquired active immunity.
C. an epidemic of autoimmunity.
D. people keeping away from each other.
E. bovine immunity.

A. herd immunity

Aging of the lymphatic system begins
A. before birth.
B. at birth.
C. shortly after birth.
D. at puberty.
E. after age 50.

A. before birth

Morris has lung cancer and is given the drug Avastin. His doctor says that the drug is a monoclonal antibody. This means that the drug consists of
A. a cocktail of many types of antibodies.
B. a cocktail of many types of antigens.
C. a single type of antibody.
D. a single type of antigen.
E. none of the above.

C. a single type of antibody

A drug based on a monoclonal antibody differs from the immune response in that
A. all of the antibodies descend from one B lymphocyte.
B. the antibodies descend from several B lymphocytes.
C. a monoclonal antibody is a cytokine.
D. all of the antibodies descend from one T lymphocyte.
E. it consists of only antigen binding sites.

A. all of the antibodies descend from one B lymphocyte

Factors that contribute to the prevalence of peanut allergy in the U.S. include the fact that
A. peanut antigens are in infant formula.
B. peanuts lack allergens.
C. peanut allergens are stopped and destroyed in the stomach, causing cramps.
D. dry roasting activates the responsible allergens.
E. people inherit peanut allergy.

D. dry roasting activates the responsible allergens

In HIV infection, reverse transcriptase
A. makes DNA from viral RNA.
B. makes RNA from viral DNA.
C. makes protein from viral RNA.
D. makes protein from viral DNA.
E. destroys the immune system.

A. makes DNA from viral RNA

A vaccine against HIV
A. is available for those who can afford it.
B. may be impossible due to the variability and diversity of HIV.
C. consists of cocktails of drugs taken daily.
D. prevents opportunistic infections.
E. is made of monoclonal antibodies.

B. may be impossible due to the variability and diversity of HIV

The order in which HIV breaches barriers and affects immunity is
A. inhalation, entering the circulation, entering helper T cells.
B. ingestion, entering the circulation, entering helper T cells.
C. crossing the mucosal barrier, entering macrophages, then B cells, then natural killer cells
D. crossing the mucosal barrier, entering macrophages, entering helper T cells, then cytotoxic T cells
E. entering the penis or vagina, carried in mucus to cytotoxic B cells.

D. crossing the mucosal barrier, entering macrophages, entering helper T cells, then cytotoxic T cells

Lymphatic capillaries are thin-walled, closed-ended tubes.

True

Muscle contraction moves lymph through lymphatic vessels.

True

The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum.

True

The thymus enlarges after puberty.

False

Older red blood cells may be destroyed in the spleen.

True

Innate defenses include mechanical and chemical barriers, whereas adaptive defenses counter specific disease-causing agents.

True

Two mechanical barriers to infection are interferon and inflammation.

False

Normal immune responses require T and B lymphocytes.

True

Immunoglobulin A is abundant in endocrine gland secretions.

False

During the primary immune response, B lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells.

True

As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction, mast cells release histamine.

True

An immunoglobulin molecule is an antigen secreted by T lymphocytes.

False

In active immunity, a person becomes immune to a pathogen as a result of having a disease.

True

Autoimmune diseases are more common in older people.

True

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that affects the skeletal muscles only.

False

An injection of synthetic antibodies imparts active immunity.

False

AIDS is caused by a virus that attacks complement enzymes.

False

Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ______.

Pathogens

Lymph is ______ ______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.

Tissue fluid

______ is accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces.

Edema

______ are masses of partially encapsulated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx.

Tonsils

Lymph nodes are centers for the production of ______, which act against foreign particles carried in lymph.

Lymphocytes

The foreign, or "non-self" substances that trigger immune responses are called ______.

Antigens

Widely distributed phagocytic cells that remain fixed in position constitute the ________ ________ _______.

Mononuclear phagocytic system

A substance that can stimulate a primary immune response but is unable to produce the symptoms of a disease is a(n) ______.

Vaccine

A population of lymphocytes whose members are all alike and are capable of responding to the same specific antigen is called a(n) _______.

Clone

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