A&P II Chapters 23&24 Reading

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In cystic fibrosis, blockage of the pancreatic duct by thick mucus will prevent the flow of pancreatic juice into the duodenum; this will directly cause ______.

atrophy of the pancreatic acini

Which major process involves the removal of water from intestinal contents?

absorption

Where does the process of segmentation occur?

small intestine

How would you classify chewing food?

mechanical breakdown

Which of the following functions is NOT correctly matched with its description?

propulsion: physical breakdown of ingested food in the GI tract

Which of the following is NOT a means of mechanically breaking down food?

peristalsis

Which organ of the digestive tract is the body’s major digestive organ?

small intestine

In a patient suffering from untreated infection-induced peritonitis, an infection in the visceral peritoneum immediately ______.

spreads directly to the parietal peritoneum

Unitary smooth muscle is found in all hollow organs except for the heart. What structure do both heart muscle and unitary smooth muscle share that allows them to contract as a functional group?

gap junctions

Which layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium?

mucosa

Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis?

muscularis externa

Which layer of the alimentary canal contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus that helps regulate digestive activity?

submucosa

Peritoneal organs are completely covered in a serous membrane and have a dorsal and ventral mesentery.

False

The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal organs.

visceral peritoneum

The __________ circulation drains all of the organs of the digestive system.

hepatic portal

The outermost tissue layer of the alimentary canal is the __________.

serosa

Which layer of the digestive tract controls digestive propulsion?

muscularis externa

Which of the following does NOT describe a basic regulator of digestive control?

conscious neural control

A person with ankyloglossia would likely have difficulty pronouncing the word ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

A mumps viral infection of the two parotid glands may ______.

spread to the other salivary glands

Hyposalivation can be treated with a drug that ______.

stimulates muscarinic receptors in salivary gland serous cells

Impacted wisdom teeth is a problem that is never observed in children because ______.

they lack third molar teeth

What muscle forms the labia of the mouth and controls most lip movement, including puckering?

orbicularis oris

The palatine tonsils are located between which two structures?

the palatopharyngeal arch and the palatoglossal arch

The uvula is an extension of the __________.

soft palate

Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?

Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

Which of the following inhibits salivation?

being stressed or frightened

Where do the ducts of the submandibular salivary glands empty into the oral cavity?

the base of the lingual frenulum

How many total permanent teeth should an adult have, assuming none have been lost or removed?

32

How are wisdom teeth (third molars) classified?

as permanent teeth

Which teeth are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food in the permanent dentition?

incisors

The deciduous dentition consists of __________ teeth.

20

Which digestive process does NOT occur in the mouth?

segmentation

After root canal therapy, a tooth may become infected again due to poor dental hygiene. The patient might not seek treatment for this newly infected tooth because ______.

the tooth lacks a nerve that would make the patient perceive pain

What control mechanism opens the gastroesophageal sphincter?

peristalsis in the esophagus

Gastric juice does not typically cause a burning sensation within the stomach. But reflux of this gastric juice into the esophagus can cause a burning sensation. One reason why this occurs is that the esophagus ______.

secretes mucus that is not identical to stomach mucus

In a patient suffering from a gastric ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori, the cells most likely to have been damaged first are the ______.

mucous cells

Which layer of the stomach contains the gastric pits that secrete mucous, acid, and digestive enzymes?

mucosa

Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal?

an oblique muscle layer

Which area of the stomach adjoins the small intestine?

pylorus

Chief cells secrete inactive pepsinogen in order to prevent acid erosion inside of the chief cells.

False

The intestinal phase of stomach digestion is triggered by partially digested nutrients filling the pylorus.

False

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

In the __________ phase of gastric secretion, chyme is moved into the duodenum.

intestinal

What role of the stomach is essential to life?

production of intrinsic factor

Which of the following processes occurs in the stomach?

mechanical digestion

Before and during vomiting, the emetic center initiates motor responses that involve ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following constitute a portal triad?

a bile duct along with a portal venule and arteriole

Which of the following best describes the capillary wall structure found in the liver lobules?

The capillary walls have openings that allow large proteins and small cells to pass through.

Which vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood to the liver from the digestive tract?

hepatic portal vein

Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?

enteropeptidase

What is a major function of pancreatic juice?

neutralizing chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach

What triggers the release of secretin from the small intestine?

the presence of acidic, fatty chyme in the small intestine

Bile is secreted by the __________ under hormonal influence of __________.

liver; secretin

The pancreas secretes __________.

procarboxypeptidase

Which of the following is NOT a secretion of the pancreas?

bile

Cirrhosis can cause ______.

a bleeding disorder

What structural modification of the small intestine slows the movement of chyme through the lumen?

circular folds

Which cells in the small intestine’s mucosa secrete mucus?

goblet cells

Which of these best describes a lacteal?

a lymphatic vessel designed to help introduce fats to the blood

The __________ is the first segment of the small intestine.

duodenum

Which of the following is NOT a structural modification of the small intestine that increases surface area?

rugae

Most absorption of nutrients occurs in the __________.

jejunum

Which other organ can affect small-intestine motility?

stomach

An obstruction by a gallstone is least likely to occur in the ______.

common hepatic duct

Which of the following is NOT inhibited by the intestino-intestinal reflex?

muscularis mucosae

The appendix contains masses of lymphoid tissue and therefore has leukocytes capable of attacking bacteria present in the appendix. But during appendicitis, bacteria trapped in the lumen of the appendix are not effectively attacked because ______.

there is an inadequate blood supply to the appendix wall

The formation of diverticula involves, most significantly, the ______.

weakening of the colon’s submucosa

An effective way to medically treat diarrhea would be to use a drug that ______.

inhibits the activity of the myenteric nerve plexus

Which of the following propels food residue over large areas of the colon three to four times a day?

mass movement

As wastes navigate the large intestine, which features do they pass through, in order?

the right colic, left colic, and sigmoid flexures

Which of the following is the primary physiological function of the large intestine?

water absorption and feces elimination

Which water-soluble vitamins are absorbed in the small intestines?

B complex and C vitamins

An effective way to treat galactosemia would be to stop ingesting galactose and ______.

lactose

How are fats absorbed into the lymph?

in the form of chylomicrons

Which enzyme(s) is/are responsible for the chemical breakdown of carbohydrates?

amylases

Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?

protease: lipid digestion

Carbohydrates are digested into __________.

monosaccharides

When a baby ingests breast milk, the milk’s IgA antibodies may be absorbed into the baby’s bloodstream because ______.

many pepsinogen molecules remain unchanged

One of the direct consequences of lactose intolerance is ______.

increased osmotic pressure of the large intestine contents

What type of blood capillary located in this sublayer is uniquely suited for absorption of nutrient material?

fenestrated

__________ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.

Constipation

Bacteria that reside in the large intestine make vitamin C.

False

Which of the following is NOT a function of the large intestine?

production of intrinsic factor

Which nutrients function primarily as an energy source for cells?

carbohydrates

Which nutrient molecule CANNOT be used in the oxidative pathways?

cholesterol

Which of the following is NOT considered a nutrient?

ATP

Which of the following nutrients is NOT matched with its use in the body?

carbohydrates: hormones

A growing child is likely to exhibit negative nitrogen balance.

False

A particular type of anemia can occur because of the inability to absorb a specific B vitamin. Which of the following is a gastric condition that would be associated with this anemia?

achlorhydria

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

vitamin B

Which of the following is represented by the membrane indicated in the figure?

inner mitochondrial membrane

What serves as the energy source for the proton pumps in oxidative phosphorylation?

electrons passing from transfer molecules to oxygen

Which of the following molecules is most directly involved in the transfer of energy from food to the proton pumps depicted in this figure?

NADH

The movement of H+ through the ATP synthase is best described as an example of __________.

facilitated diffusion

How is the chemiosmotic process shown in the figure similar to secondary active transport (cotransport) of solutes (discussed in Chapter 3)?

Both processes use an electrochemical gradient to store energy.

Which of the following is a common feature of both sets of reactions represented by A and B in the figure?

Both include steps involving the oxidation of organic molecules.

Which of the following is a common feature of the processes indicated by both letters D and E?

movement of hydrogen atoms associated with NADH

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the reactions indicated by the letters F and G?

Both reactions involve the transfer of a phosphate group from an organic substrate to ADP.

Where do the processes indicated by the letter C occur?

on the inner mitochondria membrane

Which letter(s) indicate(s) the process during which oxygen is consumed?

C

What is the primary function of cellular respiration?

to regenerate ATP

Which of the following pathways is INCORRECTLY matched with a description?

Gluconeogenesis: using glucose to build noncarbohydrate structures

__________ refers to reactions in which small molecules are used to build larger molecules.

Anabolism

Redox reactions __________.

are characterized by one substance’s gaining an electron while another substance loses an electron

Most ATP in cellular respiration is regenerated in substrate level phosphorylation.

False

If cyanide entered cells, the result would be ______.

a net gain of only 4 ATP molecules produced from each glucose molecule

Which of the following events is NOT depicted in the figure?

transfer of electrons and hydrogen atoms from a food molecule to a coenzyme

Proton pumps within the electron transport chain transport H+ ions __________.

from matrix to intermembrane space

Which of the following statements regarding the electron transport chain is FALSE?

Each enzyme complex in the electron transport chain catalyzes the conversion of oxygen to oxygen ions that eventually form water.

Which of the following describes the event depicted on the right side of the figure?

ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation

Which of the following pathways act as a source for the electrons carried by the NADH and FADH2 molecules shown in this figure?

both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

The citric acid cycle occurs in the __________ of cells and is an __________ process

mitochondria; aerobic

Which of the following is NOT an end product of the citric acid cycle?

citric acid

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

oxidative phosphorylation: no energy is produced

Glycogenesis occurs when ATP levels are high and glucose is abundant.

True

During ketosis caused by inadequate ingestion of carbohydrates, ______.

the glycogen content of the liver is reduced

__________ is the conversion of acetyl CoA into ketone bodies.

Ketogenesis

Which of the following is NOT catabolic?

lipogenesis

Ammonia, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism, is converted to __________ primarily in the __________.

urea; liver

The hyperglycemia that occurs during diabetes mellitus is accompanied by ______.

ketosis

Which hormone promotes protein catabolism?

cortisol

__________ is the key hormone regulator of the postabsorptive state.

Glucagon

Which of these happens during the postabsorptive state?

Blood glucose levels are maintained within an adequate range.

One of the reasons why statins are effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease is ______.

they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial walls

Which of the following is NOT an essential role of the liver?

urea disposal

__________ are considered "bad" cholesterol; high blood levels are believed to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

LDLs

GI stretch is a short-term regulator of food intake.

True

Metabolism includes both anabolism and catabolism. In hyperthyroidism, the metabolic rate is increased because ______.

the rate of exergonic reactions is increased

If Samantha hypersecretes thyroxine, what symptom could she have?

weight loss without dieting

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched in regards to BMR (basal metabolic rate)?

younger age: lower BMR

__________ is the energy (kilocalories consumed) that the body uses to perform only its most essential activities.

The basal metabolic rate

Heavy sweating can induce heat cramps due to ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Frostbite is LEAST likely to occur in the skin of a body region (e.g., abdominal region, finger region, etc.) that ______.

is closer to the heart than skin of a body region that is farther from the heart

Although both conditions share the common characteristic of elevated body temperature, hyperthermia is technically different from fever because ______.

fever is a condition in which there is a change in the body’s temperature set-point

Which brain region is the main integrating center for thermoregulation?

hypothalamus

Which of the following would decrease body temperature?

dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

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