A&P EXAM 2

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Which of these is NOT one of the four recognized tissue types?

-neural tissue
-nasal tissue
-connective tissue
-muscle tissue

nasal tissue

The study of tissues is called:

-micrology.
-toxicology.
-cytology.
-mycology.
-histology.

histology

Which surface attaches to the underlying epithelial cells or deeper tissues?

-lateral
-basolateral
-apical
-glandular

basolateral

Which adhesion is required for cell-to-cell communication?

-gap junctions
-spot desmosome
-hemidesmosome
-tight junction

gap junctions

Many types of epithelial cells perform the function of __________.

-contraction
-secretion
-support
-conduction

secretion

Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except

-attachment.
-extracellular matrix.
-avascularity.
-regeneration.
-polarity.

extracellular matrix

The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the

-gap junction.
-zonula adherens.
-tight junction.
-desmosome.
-hemidesmosome.

gap junction

Functions of epithelia include all of the following except

-absorption.
-supporting muscle cells.
-providing physical protection.
-controlling permeability.
-producing specialized secretions.

supporting muscle cells.

Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by

-a reticular lamina.
-a basement membrane.
-proteoglycan.
-interfacial canals.
-keratin.

a basement membrane.

Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach?

-simple squamous epithelium
-simple columnar epithelium
-simple cuboidal epithelium
-stratified squamous epithelium
-pseudostratified ciliated columnar
epithelium

simple columnar epithelium

In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant?

-hemidesmosomes
-gap junctions
-desmosomes
-basolateral junctions
-tight junctions

desmosomes

An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface.

-topical
-crest
-apogeal
-pinnacle
-apical

apical

Which epithelium is responsible for protection, secretion, and absorption?

-simple cuboidal transitional
-stratified columnar
-stratified cuboidal

stratified cuboidal

Exfoliative cytology involves the removal of epithelial cells for examination. Which of the following is NOT a clinical application of exfoliative cytology?

-examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack
-evaluating lesions in the oral cavity and pharynx amniocentesis performed partway through a pregnancy
-a Pap test performed to examine cells for cervical cancer

examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack

In exfoliative cytology, epithelial cells are removed and examined without any lasting damage to the tissue from which these cells are removed. Why is there usually NO lasting damage?

-Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration.
-The contractile property of epithelial tissue minimizes scarring.
-The stored energy in epithelial tissue facilitates effective healing.
-Epithelial tissues are avascular.

Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration.

Simple squamous epithelium is found __________.

-covering the skin
-lining blood vessels
-lining the ureters
-lining the trachea

lining blood vessels

The urinary bladder is lined by __________.

-simple cuboidal epithelium
-simple squamous epithelium
-transitional epithelium
-simple columnar epithelium

transitional epithelium

Cells that are flat and thin are classified as

-cuboidal.
-squamous.
-columnar.
-transitional.
-blasts.

squamous

The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are

-squamous and simple.
-simple and stratified.
-cuboidal and columnar.
-stratified and pseudostratified.
-simple and proper.

simple and stratified.

The pancreas produces ________ secretions.

-serous and sebaceous mucous and acid
-secretory and absorptive merocrine and holocrine
-exocrine and endocrine

exocrine and endocrine

The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as

-perithelium.
-mesothelium.
-endothelium.
-intrathelium.
-myothelium.

mesothelium

Gland cells produce

-mesenchyme.
-fibers.
-phagocytes.
-antibodies.
-secretions.

secretions

Which cell is present in many connective tissues that can differentiate into different types of cell?

-adipocytes
-melanocytes
-fibroblasts
-mesenchymal

mesenchymal

Which white blood cell is important in removing foreign bacteria?

-erythrocyte
-monocyte
-lymphocyte
-basophil

monocyte

A marked loss in strength and elasticity of connective tissue characterizes Marfan’s syndrome. Which connective tissue component imparts strength and elasticity?

-fibroblasts
-ground substance
-proteinaceous connective tissue fibers
-adipocytes

proteinaceous connective tissue fibers

It has been shown that as a person ages, the amount of collagen in the skin decreases and becomes more disorganized. Of the choices below, which is the best explanation for why this happens?

-Reticular fibers become more abundant as we age.
-The ground substance becomes less dense as we age.
-Fibroblasts become less active as we age.
-Elastic fibers become more brittle and break easily.

Fibroblasts become less active as we age.

Blood is which type of tissue?

-epithelial
-mesenchyme
-connective
-muscle
-nerve

connective

Cells that store fat are called

-lipocytes.
-podocytes.
-melanocytes.
-adipocytes.
-macrocytes.

adipocytes

The three categories of connective tissues are

-connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
-epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.
-glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.
-areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.
-connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.

connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.

The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are

-tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments.
-loose, dense, and irregular.
-cartilage, bone, and collagen.
-collagen, reticular, and elastic.
-polar, cellular, and permeable.

collagen, reticular, and elastic.

Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except

-cushioning and stabilizing.
-providing strong connections between muscles and bones.
-filling spaces between organs.
-anchoring blood vessels and nerves.
-supporting epithelia.

providing strong connections between muscles and bones.

Antibodies are produced by

-fibroblasts.
-mast cells.
-macrophages.
-microphages.
-plasma cells.

plasma cells

The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and

-serous fluid.
-lymph.
-synovial fluid.
-urine.
-sweat.

lymph

In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine.

-mast
-plasma
-goblet
-mesenchymal
-gland

mast

TO celebrate her 50th birthday, Anna got her ear pierced in the elastic cartilage portion (pinna). The piercing specialist informed her that it will take at least 6 weeks to heal. This is because __________.

-osseous tissue replaces the cartilage matrix
-cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer
-only interstitial cartilage growth occurs and it is much slower than appositional
-growth chondrocytes take longer to migrate to the site of injury

cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer

The most common type of cartilage is ________ cartilage.

-hyaline
-ligamentous
-fibrous
-osseous
-elastic

hyaline

Osseous tissue is also called

-bone.
-cellulite.
-fat.
-cartilage.
-ligament.

bone

Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.

-leukocytes
-erythrocytes
-mesenchymal cells
-lymphocytes
-chondrocytes

chondrocytes

A patient goes to his doctor because he has noticed a pain and a rubbing sound when he breathes. The patient has also noticed that his abdomen has gotten bigger – but he eats a healthy diet. What is most likely the cause of the patient’s condition?

-The mucous membranes have decreased mucus production due to injury to the epithelium, resulting in an accumulation of mucus in the abdomen.
-The serous membranes are inflamed and scratching against one another, resulting in pleurisy.
-There is an accumulation of synovial fluid due to trauma to the ribcage. As a result, fluid has leaked into the abdomen.
-The cutaneous membrane separated from the underlying connective tissue, causing the fluid accumulation under the skin.

The serous membranes are inflamed and scratching against one another, resulting in pleurisy.

The serous membrane covering the lungs is the __________.

-peritoneum
-periosteum
-pericardium
-pleura

pleura

The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the

-periosteum.
-perichondrium.
-pleura.
-peritoneum.
-pericardium.

peritoneum

The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of

-the lamina propria.
-serous membranes.
-cutaneous membranes.
-synovial membranes.
-mucous membranes.

serous membranes.

The term transudate describes fluid associated with

-serous membranes.
-mucus membranes.
-endocrine glands.
-cutaneous membranes.
-mammary glands.

serous membranes.

The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the

-lamina propria.
-basal lamina.
-areolar lamina.
-mucina lamina.
-lamina densa.

lamina propria.

Anne Marie has a condition called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that affects the connective tissue found in her joints and skin. What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

-All types of connective tissue have specialized cells embedded in a matrix composed of extracellular fibers and ground substance.
-Connective tissue is characterized by stratified layers of squamous cells.
-Connective tissue cells come in a wide variety of shapes, but all are excitable and can relay information.
-Connective tissue is characterized by bundles of multi-nucleic fibers that have striations and can shorten.

All types of connective tissue have specialized cells embedded in a matrix composed of extracellular fibers and ground substance.

What are the different types of connective tissue?

-Connective tissue can be divided into areolar and reticular tissues.
-Connective tissue can be divided into three main types: connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
-Connective tissue can be divided into tendons, bone, and cartilage.
-Connective tissue can be divided into loose connective tissues and dense connective tissues.

Connective tissue can be divided into three main types: connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome specifically affects collagen fibers. What other types of fibers in addition to collagen are found in connective tissue?

-ligaments and tendons microfilaments and intermediate fibers
-Reticular and elastic fibers are also found in connective tissues.
-fibroblasts and chondrocytes

Reticular and elastic fibers are also found in connective tissues.

Because connective tissue is found throughout the body, more than just Anne Marie’s joints and skin could be affected by Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. What is fascia and where is it found?

-Fascia is the areolar tissue component of a mucus membrane that anchors it to the surrounding tissue.
-Fascia is a connective tissue membrane found lining the cavities of the body.
-Fasciae are layers of connective tissue that surround and support organs.
-Fascia is a membrane found adjacent to articulating surfaces that secretes synovial fluid.

Fasciae are layers of connective tissue that surround and support organs.

Deep fascia refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds __________.

-hypodermis
-a nerve
-a muscle
-a blood vessel

a muscle

The type of muscle tissue that does not contain gap junctions is __________.

-smooth
-cardiac
-striated
-skeletal

skeletal

Myosatellite cells are found within __________ muscle.

-skeletal
-smooth
-cardiac
-skeletal and smooth

skeletal

Which structure typically receives information from other neurons?

-neuroglia
-microfibrils
-dendrite
-axon

dendrite

Which of the following is NOT a property of neuroglia?

-They repair neural tissue.
-They supply nutrients to neurons.
-They conduct electrical impulses.
-They support neural tissue.

They conduct electrical impulses.

Which of these carries information from the neural cell body to the next cell?

-lymphatic vessels
-axons
-neuroglia
-blood vessels

axons

All of the following are true of neurons except that

-they are separated from one another by synapses.
-they conduct a nervous impulse.
-they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.
-when mature, they lose the ability to divide.
-they are composed of a cell body and axon.

they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.

________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.

-Neurons
-Nurse cells
-Neuroglia
-Nurturons
-Nutrient cells

Neuroglia

Mast cells, in the process of stimulating an inflammatory response, secrete all EXCEPT which of the following?

-heparin
-histamine
-prostaglandins
-interleukin-1

interleukin-1

During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury?

-increase in blood flow
-cold, pale skin
-increase in basophils
-increase in histamine swelling

cold, pale skin

The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is called

-necrosis.
-inflammation.
-cystosis.
-fibrosis.
-apoptosis.

fibrosis

The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium?

-transitional epithelium
-simple columnar epithelium
-simple squamous epithelium

simple squamous epithelium

The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?

-ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
-stratified squamous epithelium
-simple cuboidal epithelium

simple cuboidal epithelium

The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue?

-stratified squamous epithelium
-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
-simple columnar epithelium

stratified squamous epithelium

Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron?

-soma
-axon
-dendrites

soma

Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei?

-smooth
-skeletal
-cardiac

skeletal

Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control?

-smooth
-skeletal
-cardiac

cardiac

What is the functional classification of this type of joint? (knee)

-diarthrosis
-synarthrosis
-amphiarthrosis
-slightly movable

diarthrosis

What is the classification of this type of joint? (lambdoid suture)

-amphiarthrosis
-diarthrosis
-slightly movable
-synarthrosis

synarthrosis

What is the classification of this type of joint? (pubic symphysis)

-diarthrosis
-amphiarthrosis
-synarthrosis
-immovable joint

amphiarthrosis

Joints can be classified structurally as

-bony.
-synovial.
-cartilaginous.
-fibrous.
-All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a

-synchondrosis.
-suture.
-synotosis.
-gomphosis.
-syndesmosis.

gomphosis.

An immovable joint is a(n)

-synarthrosis.
-amphiarthrosis.
-diarthrosis.
-syndesmosis.
-symphysis.

synarthrosis.

A synovial joint is an example of a(n)

-synarthrosis.
-symphysis.
-diarthrosis.
-syndesmosis.
-amphiarthrosis.

diarthrosis.

A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a

-symphysis.
-synchondrosis.
-synostosis.
-gomphosis.
-syndesmosis.

syndesmosis.

A slightly movable joint is a(n)

-diarthrosis.
-gomphosis.
-amphiarthrosis.
-synarthrosis.
-synostosis.

amphiarthrosis.

A suture is an example of a(n)

-diarthrosis.
-syndesmosis.
-symphysis.
-amphiarthrosis.
-synarthrosis.

synarthrosis.

An epiphyseal line is an example of a

-symphysis.
-synostosis.
-syndesmosis.
-gomphosis.
-synchondrosis.

synostosis.

An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the

-navicular bone with the cuniform bones.
-atlas and the axis.
-femur with the acetabulum.
-radius and the ulna.
-ribs with the sternum.

ribs with the sternum.

A freely movable joint is a(n)

-diarthrosis.
-amphiarthrosis.
-synarthrosis.
-symphysis.
-syndesmosis.

diarthrosis.

The intervertebral disc joint is called a

-symphysis.
-synarthrosis.
-condylar joint.
-glide joint.
-synchondrosis.

symphysis

Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to

-periodontal ligament.
-completely fused.
-fibrous cartilage.
-rigid cartilaginous bridge.
-dense regular connective tissue.

fibrous cartilage.

Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation.

-bony
-fibrous
-diarthrotic
-cartilaginous
-synovial

cartilaginous

Identify the incorrect pair.

-gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone
-synarthrosis; immovable joint
-amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint
-chondrosis; freely moving joint
-They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair.

chondrosis; freely moving joint

Give a function of the structure indicated by the arrow. (fat pad)

-Fill spaces in a joint.
-Reduce friction.
-Subdivide the synovial cavity.
-Support and strengthen.

Fill spaces in a joint.

The fluid within Bursae functions to cushion structures in or around a joint. In Bursitis, excessive fluid accumulates and joint movements become painful. What is the name of this fluid within healthy bursae?

-pus
-sebum
-synovial fluid
-plasma

synovial fluid

Dislocations are more common in highly movable joints. Which of the following types of joints would be least likely to dislocate?

-a fibrous syndesmosis
-a cartilaginous symphysis
-a bony synostosis
-a triaxial diarthrosis

a bony synostosis

What is the trade off for joints with greater movement?

-Joints with greater movement have less flexibility.
-Joints with greater movement have less stability.
-Joints with greater movement have fewer bone articulations.
-Joints with greater movement have greater strength.

Joints with greater movement have less stability.

The fluid that fills the joint cavity in a diarthrosis is produced by the __________.

-synovial membrane
-cruciate ligaments
-medial fat pad
-menisci

synovial membrane

Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?

-The matrix begins to break down.
-Friction in the joint increases.
-Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.
-The exposed surface appears rough.
-All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?

-provides nutrients
-protects articular cartilages
-increases osmotic pressure within joint
-shock absorption
-lubrication

increases osmotic pressure within joint

Bursae are found in all of the following areas except

-around blood vessels.
-tendon sheaths.
-beneath the skin covering a bone.
-around many synovial joints.
-within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure.

around blood vessels.

Which of the following is not a property of articular cartilage?

-similar to hyaline cartilage
-enclosed by an articular capsule
-lubricated by synovial fluid
-smooth, low-friction surface
-covered by perichondrium

covered by perichondrium

The surface of articular cartilage is

-rough.
-smooth.
-slick.
-flat.
-both slick and smooth.

both slick and smooth.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage?

-It is composed of cartilage similar to hyaline cartilage.
-Surfaces are normally slick and smooth.
-There is no perichondrium.
-The matrix contains more water than other cartilages.
-It secretes synovial fluid.

It secretes synovial fluid.

Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?

-freely movable
-covered by a capsule
-contain synovial fluid
-covered by a serous membrane
-lined by a secretory epithelium

covered by a serous membrane

A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.

-bunion
-dislocation
-sprain
-fracture
-bursitis

dislocation

A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe.

-pimple
-bunion
-blister
-spur
-callus

bunion

The opposite of supination is __________.

-dorsiflexion
-abduction
-opposition
-pronation

pronation

The opposite of dorsiflexion is __________.

-ventroflexion
-plantar flexion
-elevation
-genuflexion

plantar flexion

Ankle extension is also called

-eversion.
-plantar flexion.
-protraction.
-dorsiflexion.
-inversion.

plantar flexion.

A movement away from the midline of the body is called

-abduction.
-adduction.
-extension.
-flexion.
-inversion.

abduction

The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint.

-hinge
-saddle
-condylar
-gliding
-pivot

saddle

The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the

-foot.
-arm.
-leg.
-hip.
-hand.

foot

The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

-gliding
-condylar
-pivot
-saddle
-hinge

hinge

Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

-shoulder
-ankle
-elbow
-wrist
-knee

shoulder

Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes?

-dorsiflexion
-rotation
-plantar flexion
-eversion
-inversion

plantar flexion

Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?

-flexion
-elevation
-pronation
-abduction
-circumduction

elevation

The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________ rotation.

-lateral
-medial
-abductive
-internal
-superficial

lateral

The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint.

-pivot
-condyloid
-gliding
-ball and socket
-saddle

pivot

The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is

-lateral rotation and medial rotation.
-protraction and retraction.
-abduction and adduction.
-supination and pronation.
-flexion and extension.

supination and pronation.

Which structure of the intervertebral articulation gives the disc its resiliency and ability to absorb shock?

-anulus fibrosus
-ligamentum flavum
-vertebral end plates -nucleus pulposus

nucleus pulposus

Which structure of the intervertebral disc attaches to the bodies of adjacent vertebra?

-nucleus pulposus
-anulus fibrosus
-vertebral end plates
-ligamentum flavum

anulus fibrosus

How is a bulging disc different from a herniated disc?

-In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus protrudes into the nucleus pulposus.
-In a bulging disk, the hyaline cartilage of the annulus fibrosus is still intact.
-In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus has become torn.
-In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal.

In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal.

A chiropractor manipulates joints, specifically the vertebral joints, to correct subluxations. What is another way to state this?

-A dislocation can only be corrected by a chiropractor.
-A chiropractor corrects major dislocations that occur at amphiarthroses.
-A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations.
-Synarthroses are major weak points for subluxations.

A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations.

Tom was experiencing pain, numbness, and weakness after he lifted a heavy box. Which of the following is the most likely injury that occurred?

-a herniated intervertebral disc
-fracture of a vertebra
-a loss of the annulus fibrosis
-slippage of the hyaline cartilage

a herniated intervertebral disc

All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints except

-flexion.
-dorsiflexion.
-rotation.
-extension.
-lateral flexion.

dorsiflexion.

A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by

-ossification of the vertebral disc.
-protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.
-slippage of the fibrocartilage disc.
-transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage.
-loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity.

protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.

A herniated disc occurs when the

-nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus.
-disc slips out from between the adjacent vertebrae.
-adjacent bones fuse.
-inner core of the disc is squeezed to one side.
-knee is hyperextended.

nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus.

The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint.

-sacroiliac
-vertebrocoxal
-coxosacral
-iliocoxal
-vertebroilial

sacroiliac

Which of the following sports positions would most likely be associated with a rotator cuff injury?

-a quarterback
-a golfer
-a soccer player
-a snowboarder

a quarterback

The joint with greatest range of motion is the __________.

-humerus-ulna
-femur-tibia
-femur-acetabulum
-humerus-scapula

humerus-scapula

Which of the following is false?

-The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.
-The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint.
-The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint.
-The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.
-The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.

The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.

The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to

-reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.
-allow monaxial movement.
-allow biaxial movement.
-limit the range of movements.
-reinforce the joint capsule.

reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.

The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the

-radial joint.
-humeroradial joint.
-humero-ulnar joint.
-ulnaradial joint.
-ulnar joint.

humero-ulnar joint.

During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged?

-the lateral collateral ligament
-the lateral meniscus
-the medial meniscus
-the fibular collateral ligament

the lateral meniscus

A torn lateral collateral ligament destabilizes the connection between which of the following bones?

-the femur and the tibia
-the patella and the tibia
-the femur and the fibula
-the femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula

the femur and the fibula

In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci

-are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.
-are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.
-are found between the patella and femur.
-act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
-take the place of bursae.

act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.

The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves

-abduction.
-flexion.
-adduction.
-extension.
-both flexion and extension.

both flexion and extension.

Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because

-the knee contains seven major ligaments.
-the knee is extremely resilient.
-the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee.
-the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.
-the knee is protected by the patella.

the knee contains seven major ligaments.

The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the

-patella.
-lateral meniscus.
-ligaments.
-medial meniscus.
-tendons.

medial meniscus.

Jessica’s mother takes her to see her pediatrician, who refers her to a rheumatologist, a doctor who specializes in rheumatic diseases. This doctor withdraws some synovial fluid using a small needle from Jessica’s warm, swollen, tender knee that has limited motion. What types of joint are freely movable like the knee?

-Synchrondroses are freely movable joints.
-Amphiarthroses are freely movable joints.
-Synarthroses are freely movable joints.
-Diarthroses are freely movable joints.

Diarthroses are freely movable joints.

Jessica’s knee is a synovial joint. What type of synovial joint is the knee, and what movements is this joint capable of?

-pivot joint capable of rotation
-ball-and socket-joint capable of triaxial movement
-saddle joint capable of biaxial movement
-hinge joint capable of monaxial movement

hinge joint capable of monaxial movement

Jessica is suffering from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, the most common type of childhood arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the synovial membrane. What treatment would you recommend for Jessica?

-immune suppressants
-corticosteroid injections
-limiting activity
-gentle exercise and NSAIDs

gentle exercise and NSAIDs

Rheumatoid arthritis is just one of several types of arthritis. What do all types of arthritis have in common?

-crystals of uric acid
-destruction of cartilage
-a genetic predisposition
-viral or bacterial infection

destruction of cartilage

Which of these conditions more commonly occurs with advancing age?

-rheumatoid arthritis
-fibrodysplasia ossificans
-progressiva bursitis
-osteoarthritis

osteoarthritis

Which of the following occurs as part of osteoarthritis?

-Cartilage breaks down. -Cartilage develops shredded surface.
-There is increased friction.
-All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The clinical term for joint inflammation is

-atherosclerosis.
-arthritis.
-rheumatism.
-bursitis.
-bunions.

arthritis.

Which term describes a complex movement that includes both changing the angle at a joint and then moving the distal bone in a circular direction?

-Rotation
-Circumduction
-Angular motion
-Linear motion

Circumduction

Look at the following joint (shoulder). Based on the bony composition of the joint shown, which term best describes this joint’s axial movement?

-This joint’s axial movement cannot be determined.
-Triaxial
-Monaxial
-Biaxial

Triaxial

Which terms describe the types of movement allowed at the thumb?

-Angular motion
-Triaxial
-Linear motion
-Rotation
-Biaxial
-Monaxial

-Angular motion -Biaxial

Which of these is NOT a primary function of the skeletal system?

-storage of minerals and lipids
-protection
-blood cell production
-movement

movement

Which of the following functions of the skeletal system is most affected by gravity?

-protection of internal organs
-lipid storage
-blood cell production
-body support

body support

Which of these is NOT part of the skeletal system?

-ligaments
-cartilage
-tendons
-bones

tendons

Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?

-calcium homeostasis
-blood cell production
-protection of internal organs
-body support
-All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?

-other tissues that connect bones
-tendons
-ligaments
-cartilage
-bones

tendons

What is the classification of this bone according to its shape? (lambdoid)

-sutural
-short
-long
-irregular

sutural

Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?

-vertebra
-metatarsal
-frontal
-ulna
-patella

vertebra

The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the

-periphyses.
-diaphyses.
-epiphyseal plates.
-metaphyses.
-epiphyses.

epiphyses

The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.

-sesamoid
-long
-short
-irregular
-flat

short

The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.

-long
-flat
-irregular
-sesamoid
-short

long

A shallow depression on a bone is termed a

-fissure.
-line.
-fossa.
-sulcus.
-facet.

fossa

The shaft of long bones is called the

-paraphysis.
-endophysis.
-epiphysis.
-diaphysis.
-metaphysis.

diaphysis

A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley.

-trabeculae
-trochlea
-tubercle
-trochanter
-tuberosity

trochlea

A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a

-tuberosity.
-trochanter.
-trabecula.
-tubercle.
-trochlea.

tuberosity

Osteoclasts function to __________.

-build bone
-lay down matrix fibers
-break down bone
-give bone strength

break down bone

Osteoblasts differentiate from __________.

-osteocytes
-osteoclasts
-osteogenic cells
-osteomedullary cells

osteogenic cells

Bone is composed of ________ percent cells.

-15
-2
-10
-25
-50

2

Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?

-immature bone cell
-dissolves matrix
-stem cell
-mature bone cell
-secretes organic matrix

mature bone cell

Through the action of osteoclasts,

-bony matrix is dissolved.
-new bone is formed.
-osteoid is calcified.
-fractured bones regenerate.
-an organic framework is formed.

bony matrix is dissolved.

The most abundant cell type in bone is

-osteoprogenitor cells.
-osteoclasts.
-osteocytes.
-osteolytes.
-osteoblasts.

osteocytes

The lacunae of osseous tissue contain

-bone marrow.
-chondroblasts.
-osteocytes.
-capillaries.
-blood cells.

osteocytes

How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

-The bone would be stronger.
-The bone would be more brittle.
-The bone would be more flexible.
-The bone would be less flexible.
-The bone would be less compressible.

The bone would be more flexible.

Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________ cells.

-osteotrophic
-osteoprogenitor
-osteocreator
-osteopropagator
-osteoforming

osteoprogenitor

________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.

-A synovial membrane
-Elastic cartilage
-Serous fluid
-Articular cartilage
-A serous membrane

Articular cartilage

Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the

-osteoblasts.
-osteocytes.
-osteogenic cells.
-osteoclasts
-osteolytic cells.

osteoclasts

The organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone is called

-osteon.
-mesenchymal tissue.
-hydroxyapatite.
-calcium phosphate.
-osteoid.

osteoid

The central canal of an osteon contains

-bone marrow.
-concentric lamellae.
-lacunae.
-blood vessels.
-osteocytes.

blood vessels

The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called

-lacunae.
-osteons.
-interstitial lamellae.
-concentric lamellae.
-trabeculae.

trabeculae

The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone.

-compact
-lamellar
-spongy
-irregular
-osteon

spongy

The structural units of mature compact bone are called

-osteocytes.
-trabeculae.
-canaliculi.
-osteons.
-lamellae.

osteons

Adipose tissue is stored within the

-metaphysis.
-medullary cavity.
-diaphysis.
-spongy bone.
-epiphysis.

medullary cavity

Which of the following is a characteristic of bone?

-For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae.
-The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts.
-The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium.
-The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts.
-Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment.

The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts.

________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone.

-Blue
-Red
-White
-Gray
-Yellow

Red

The lining of the medullary cavity is called the

-epiosteum.
-paraosteum.
-endosteum.
-mediosteum.
-periosteum.

endosteum

________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles.

-Short
-Spongy
-Compact
-Long
-Irregular

spongy

The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are

-circumferential lamellae.
-epiphseal ridges.
-trabeculae.
-concentric lamellae.
-osteoid plates.

circumferential lamellae

Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix?

-Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone.
-Calcium is the organic part of the matrix.
-Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite.
-Calcium is secreted by osteoblasts into the matrix.
-Calcium provides flexibility to the bone matrix.

Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite.

The trabeculae of spongy bone

-are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone.
-are organized along stress lines.
-are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis.
-are composed mostly of cartilage.
-will collapse under stress.

are organized along stress lines.

Migration of blood vessels into the central region of the cartilage bone model, starting bone development, occurs at which site?

-primary ossification center
-secondary ossification
-center periosteum
-epiphysis

primary ossification center

Heterotopic bone formation is a term used to describe bones that develop in unusual places. Such unusual bone development relies on the presence of bone-building cells called __________.

-osteoprogenitor cells
-osteocytes
-osteoclasts
-osteoblasts

osteoblasts

Wearing inappropriately tight shoes can put undue pressure on feet. Such pressure may then lead to painful heterotopic bone formation in the soft tissues of the foot. Which of the following bone shapes correctly describes the round nature of these bones?

-short
-sesamoid
-irregular
-flat

sesamoid

The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?

-osseous cartilage
-fibrocartilage
-elastic cartilage
-hyaline cartilage
-synovial cartilage

hyaline cartilage

The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as

-calcification.
-remodeling.
-osteogenesis.
-hardening.
-ossification.

calcification

Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?

-clavicle
-carpal bones
-roof of the skull
-femur
-the roof of the skull and the clavicle

the roof of the skull and the clavicle

Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)

-calcified model.
-membranous model.
-fibrous connective-tissue model.
-cartilage model.
-osteoid model.

cartilage model.

Secondary ossification centers occur

-in the diaphysis.
-in the epiphyses.
-at the periosteum.
-in dermal bones.
-in the metaphyses.

in the epiphyses.

Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells.

-osteoblast
-osteoclast
-osteolytic
-mesenchymal
-osteocyte

mesenchymal

Which of the following statements about Marfan’s syndrome is false?

-It results in short, stubby fingers.
-It affects connective tissue structures.
-It may also cause cardiovascular problems.
-It results from a mutation.
-It affects epiphyseal cartilages.

It results in short, stubby fingers.

Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of

-growth of trabeculae.
-cartilage cells in the diaphyseal side of the metaphysis.
-cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis.
-concentric lamellae. osteoblasts in the endosteum.

cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis.

Intramembranous ossification

-explains how a juvenile’s bone can grow in length.
-occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone.
-occurs inside a bag of cartilage.
-produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull.
-occurs in all bones before birth

produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull.

Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the

-periosteum.
-metaphysis.
-diaphysis.
-proximal epiphysis.
-distal epiphysis.

diaphysis.

During appositional growth

-compact bone replaces spongy bone.
-cartilage replaces bone.
-bones grow longer.
-the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis.
-bones grow wider.

bones grow wider

When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,

-the bone becomes more brittle.
-long bones have reached their adult length.
-puberty begins.
-interstitial bone growth begins.
-appositional bone growth begins.

long bones have reached their adult length.

When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates

-are hardly affected.
-accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness.
-become narrower.
-increase slowly.
-widen.

become narrower

A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of

-bone spurs.
-osteoporosis.
-heterotopic bone formation.
-osteodysplasia.
-osteomalacia.

heterotopic bone formation.

What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification?

-connective tissue membranes
-fibrocartilage
-mesenchymal tissue
-Wharton’s jelly
-hyaline cartilage

hyaline cartilage

In normal adult bones,

-exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling.
-there is no turnover of minerals.
-osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases.
-a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year.
-osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed.

a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year.

The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called

-remodeling.
-osteolysis.
-ossification.
-restoration.
-resorption.

remodeling

Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children?

-parathyroid hormone (PTH)
-calcitonin
-calcitriol
-thyroid hormones

calcitonin

PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?

-calcitonin
-thyroid hormones
-vitamin D
-calcitriol

calcitriol

Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?)

-increase osteoclasts
-increase osteoblasts on bone
-increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney

increase osteoblasts on bone

Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?

-parathyroid hormone (PTH)
-calcitriol
-calcitonin

calcitriol

How is giantism similar to acromegaly?

-Both disorders stem from aberrations in the mesenchymal membranes of the embryonic skeleton.
-Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth.
-Both disorders result in continued growth of cartilage within the diaphysis.
-Both disorders result from a decrease in growth hormone availability.

Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth.

Marfan’s syndrome is a disorder associated with excessive growth in length of limbs and digits, giving the afflicted individual a tall and lanky appearance. What is the clinical term for bone growth in length?

-intramembranous ossification
-heterotopic ossification
-interstitial growth -appositional growth

interstitial growth

Calcitriol is required for __________.

-absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate
-activating osteoclasts
-inhibiting osteoclasts
-collagen synthesis

absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate

A lack of exercise could

-cause bones to store more calcium.
-cause bones to become longer.
-cause bones to become thicker.
-cause bones to lose their medullary cavity.
-result in porous and weak bones.

result in porous and weak bones.

When stress is applied to a bone,

-the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.
-blood supply through the nutrient artery diminishes and thus remodeling proceeds at a much slower rate.
-the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress.
-the bone becomes thin and brittle and ultimately fractures.
-osteoclast activity increases and osteoblast activity decreases.

the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.

Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in

-osteopenia.
-rickets.
-gigantism.
-osteoporosis.
-dwarfism.

gigantism

________ hormones stimulate osteoblasts to produce bone matrix.

-Growth
-Sex
-Thyroid
-Parathyroid
-Pancreatic

sex

Which hormone increases blood calcium upon secretion?

-estrogen and testosterone -growth hormone
-calcitonin
-parathyroid hormone (PTH)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Calcitonin causes what response in the kidneys?

-elimination of calcium ions into the urine
-inhibited osteoclast activity
-decreased absorption of calcium
-increased rate of calcium uptake by the kidney

elimination of calcium ions into the urine

The most abundant mineral in the human body is

-calcium.
-phosphorus.
-sodium.
-hydrogen.
-potassium.

calcium

Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone

-thyroid hormone.
-testosterone.
-calcitonin.
-growth hormone.
-parathyroid hormone.

calcitonin

The hormone calcitonin functions to

-decrease the rate of calcium absorption.
-decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.
-stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.
-decrease the rate of calcium excretion.
-stimulate osteoclast activity.

decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.

Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways except

-raising the level of calcium ion in the blood.
-decreasing the rate of calcium excretion.
-stimulating osteoclast activity.
-inhibiting calcitonin secretion.
-increasing the rate of calcium absorption.

inhibiting calcitonin secretion.

A child with rickets often has

-inadequate muscle development.
-long fingers.
-oversized facial bones.
-frequent bruises.
-bowed legs.

bowed legs.

Alex and his mother both suffer from osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), which means the imperfect formation of bone. Which bone cells are responsible for the formation of new bone matrix?

-Osteocytes are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
-Osteogenic cells are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
-Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
-Osteoclasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.

Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.

Bone is a type of connective tissue, with specialized cells embedded in a matrix. What does the matrix of bone consist of?

-Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone.
-Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of sodium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are collagen fibers, which provide tensile strength to bone.
-Approximately one-third of the weight of bone is composed primarily of magnesium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and elastic fibers, which provide hardness and tensile strength to bone.
-Approximately one-half of the weight of bone is composed primarily of brittle crystals of potassium salts that form hydroxyapatite. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and reticular fibers, which provide hardness and elastic strength to bone.

Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone.

There currently is no cure for OI, and treatments are often aimed at preventing or controlling symptoms. One common treatment is rodding surgery, where a metal rod is inserted into a long bone to strengthen and prevent deformity. Using what you know about the structure of a typical long bone, what part of the long bone is the most likely place for this rod to be inserted?

-the distal epiphysis
-the medullary cavity of the diaphysis
-the compact bone of the diaphysis
-the proximal epiphysis

the medullary cavity of the diaphysis

Alex had incurred previous fractures that were already in the process of healing when he went to the emergency room for his current injury. What is the correct sequence of events in the repair of a fracture?

-mesenchymal clustering, osteoblast differentiation, ossification, penetration of blood vessels, formation and remodeling of spongy bone
-hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation
-hyaline model, penetration by blood vessels, formation of primary ossification center, formation of secondary ossification center, formation of spongy and compact bone
-callus formation, formation of primary ossification center, mesenchymal clustering, transformation of spongy to compact bone

hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation

Which of the following is formed immediately after a fracture?

-internal callus
-external callus
-hematoma
-spongy bone

hematoma

After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the

-dense tuberosity.
-epiphyseal plate.
-fracture facet.
-external callus.
-condyle.

external callus.

A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.

-displaced
-compression
-Colles
-Pott’s
-greenstick

Pott’s

While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott’s fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?

-hematoma
-cyanosis
-erythema
-hypertension
-tachycardia

hematoma

A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.

-comminuted
-greenstick
-compression
-transverse
-spiral

spiral

Some older women lose height as they age. What would explain this change in stature?

-Osteoporosis causes compression of the vertebrae.
-Osteoblasts break down the bone matrix.
-Osteoporosis causes the fibrocartilage discs to herniate.
-Osteopenia causes the femur diaphysis to break down.

Osteoporosis causes compression of the vertebrae.

Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following except that it

-is released in large amounts early in life.
-increases the number of osteoclasts.
-is released by some cancer tumors.
-produces a severe osteoporosis.
-increases the activity of osteoclasts.

is released in large amounts early in life.

A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is called

-osteoporosis.
-osteitis.
-osteomyelitis.
-osteomalacia.
-osteopenia.

osteoporosis.

The condition known as osteopenia

-affects mostly women.
-is rarely seen as people age.
-causes a gradual reduction in bone mass.
-is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet.
-only affects the femur.

causes a gradual reduction in bone mass.

If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition?

-bone fragility
-increases in blood levels of calcium
-increased osteoclast activity
-decreased bone density
-All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for Mary?

-vitamin C
-vitamin D
-dairy products
-calcium supplements
-All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Which portion of the developing long bone ossifies before the other portions? Choose the best answer.

-Epiphysis
-Diaphysis
-Metaphysis
-Epiphyseal Line

Diaphysis

Which cells divide rapidly on the epiphyseal side at the epiphyseal plate, resulting in lengthening of the bone?

-Chondrocytes
-Fibroblasts
-Osteoblasts
-Osteocytes

Chondrocytes

Appositional and interstitial growth occurs in two different directions. Below, interstitial and appositional growths are paired with descriptions. Which of the pairings are correct?

-Interstitial growth: Bone gets longer, Lengthening of cartilage model. Appositional growth: Bone gets wider. Appositional growth: Bone grows at the diaphyseal surface.

Interstitial growth: Bone gets longer, Lengthening of cartilage model. Appositional growth: Bone gets wider. Appositional growth: Bone grows at the diaphyseal surface.

Every day your epidermis normally sheds dead skin cells. What is the first step in the process by which epidermal cells are replaced?

-Basal cells in the stratum germinativum divide, adding in new daughter cells and pushing the cells above upward through the layers.
-Melanocytes in the stratum basale undergo mitosis, producing new daughter cells that migrate upwards through the epidermal layers to the surface.
-The keratinized cells of the stratum corneum divide, replacing the epidermal cells that are constantly being shed every day.
-Dendritic cells from the stratum spinosum undergo mitosis, producing a new layer of epidermal cells that undergo keratinization to replace the cells shed from the stratum corneum.

Basal cells in the stratum germinativum divide, adding in new daughter cells and pushing the cells above upward through the layers.

Harold has psoriasis, a skin disorder that speeds up the life cycle of the skin cells. The keratinocytes mature too rapidly, and dead skin cells build up on the epidermal surface in scaly patches. How does a cell become keratinized?

-Keratinocytes of the stratum corneum start producing a thick extracellular layer of keratin fibers, which surround the cell, making it impermeable to nutrients. The cell eventually dies and becomes the dead keratinized cell of the stratum corneum.
-Keratinocytes in the stratum lucidum start producing extracellular keratin fibers, which tightly link together adjacent cells, forming sheets of keratinized cells that will become the layers of the stratum corneum.
-After the stem cells of the basale layer divide, the daughter cells migrate upwards to the stratum spinosum, where they mature and start producing and secreting the protein keratohyalin. The secreted keratohyalin molecules polymerize into the characteristic spiny keratin fibers (keratinization) that give the stratum spinosum its name.
-As the cells migrate through the stratum spinosum, they continue to divide, but when they reach the stratum granulosum, they stop dividing and start producing large amounts of keratin and keratohyalin. As the keratin fibers accumulate (keratinization), the nuclei and organelles disintegrate, and the cell dies.

As the cells migrate through the stratum spinosum, they continue to divide, but when they reach the stratum granulosum, they stop dividing and start producing large amounts of keratin and keratohyalin. As the keratin fibers accumulate (keratinization), the nuclei and organelles disintegrate, and the cell dies.

One of the more interesting treatments for psoriasis involves the use of the "doctor fish" (Garra rufa). Psoriasis sufferers will submerge themselves in a tank filled with these tiny fish. The fish nibble away at the outermost layer of the epidermis, removing dead skin cells and the scaly psoriasis patches. Which layer of the epidermis is the "doctor fish" removing?

-the hypodermis
-the stratum basale
-stratum corneum
-the stratum granulosum

stratum corneum

Psoriasis is a debilitating condition marked by chronic inflammation. In healthy skin, inflammation is part of the normal response to an injury. What is the next step to follow inflammation during tissue repair?

-Bleeding, swelling, and redness occur while mast cells release cytokines that attract phagocytic cells to the site of the region.
-The next step is the migratory phase. Following the formation of a scab, phagocytic cells clear debris while cells from the stratum basale migrate along the edges of the wound. Fibroblasts and mesenchymal cells divide, producing mobile cells that invade the deeper areas of the wound, and vessel endothelial cells divide to repair damaged blood vessels.
-Fibroblasts create an inflexible fibrous scar tissue at the site of injury, and the scab is shed.
-The next step is the proliferation phase. The scab becomes undermined by epidermal cells as they migrate over the collagen network formed by proliferating fibroblasts.

The next step is the migratory phase. Following the formation of a scab, phagocytic cells clear debris while cells from the stratum basale migrate along the edges of the wound. Fibroblasts and mesenchymal cells divide, producing mobile cells that invade the deeper areas of the wound, and vessel endothelial cells divide to repair damaged blood vessels.

What structure is responsible for increasing surface area to provide for the strength of attachment between the epidermis and dermis?

-epidermal ridge
-stratum lucidum
-tactile discs
-stratum corneum

epidermal ridge

Which of these is NOT an accessory structure of the skin?

-hair follicles
-sweat glands
-dermis
-sebaceous glands

dermis

Normally, how long do skin cells last before being shed or sloughed off?

-7 days
-21-24 days
-28 days
-2 weeks

21-24 days

The epidermal layer that consists almost entirely of keratin is the __________.

-reticular layer
-stratum corneum
-stratum basale
-stratum granulosum

stratum corneum

Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except

-protection of underlying tissue.
-maintenance of body temperature.
-detection of sensations.
-excretion of salts and wastes.
-synthesis of vitamin C.

synthesis of vitamin C.

The two components of the integumentary system are the

-cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
-epidermis and dermis.
-epidermis and superficial fascia.
-cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
-integument and hypodermis.

cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.

The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are

-adipocytes.
-keratinocytes.
-fibroblasts.
-melanocytes.
-dendritic cells.

keratinocytes

The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum

-granulosum.
-spinosum.
-basale.
-corneum.
-lucidum.

corneum

Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum

-granulosum.
-lucidum.
-corneum.
-basale.
-spinosum.

corneum

The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the

-dermis.
-subcutaneous layer.
-stratum basale.
-sebaceous layer.
-epidermis.

epidermis

________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system.

-Dendritic cells
-Merkel cells
-Squamous cells
-Basal cells
-Melanocytes

Dendritic cells

Water loss from insensible perspiration

-is approximately 0.5 liters a day.
-is too small to be measured reliably.
-always exceeds sensible perspiration.
-is unaffected by damage to the epidermis.
-depends on apocrine sweat glands.

is approximately 0.5 liters a day.

The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue?

-areolar connective tissue
-transitional epithelium
-simple squamous epithelium
-nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the

-basal lamina.
-papillary layer.
-stratum basale.
-stratum corneum.
-stratum granulosum.

stratum basale.

Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called

-scabs.
-scars.
-pus.
-keloids.
-blisters.

blisters

Melanocytes __________.

-are located in the stratum corneum
-store melanin in melanosomes
-are not found in albino individuals
-manufacture melanin from the amino acid alanine

store melanin in melanosomes

Skin cancers are the most common form of cancers and they range from benign to malignant. Which of the following types of skin cancers is considered the most common but also the LEAST dangerous?

-basal cell carcinoma
-malignant melanoma
-squamous cell carcinoma
-actinic keratosis

basal cell carcinoma

ABCD is an easy mnemonic device that is used while inspecting suspicious moles for indicators of skin cancer. Which of the following letters is NOT correctly matched with its definition?

-C = Color
-D = density
-B = border
-A = asymmetry

D = density

Sheila is an American Indian, Jordan is an African American, and Melissa is Asian American. List these individuals in the order of who has the most melanocytes to the least.

-Jordan, Sheila, Melissa
-The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes.
-Sheila, Jordan, Melissa
-Jordan, Melissa, Sheila

The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes.

An albino individual lacks the ability to produce

-eleidin.
-carotene.
-keratin.
-melanin.
-perspiration.

melanin

All of the following are true of the pigment melanin, except that it

-is usually some shade of brown or black.
-is produced by cells called melanocytes.
-decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.
-protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation.
-is produced from the amino acid tyrosine.

decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.

Cyanosis signifies that a patient has

-been exposed to cyanide.
-oxygen-starved skin.
-had too much sun.
-been kept out of the sun.
-an allergic reaction.

oxygen-starved skin.

Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration.

-brown
-yellowish
-orange
-reddish
-bluish

yellowish

Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by increasing the production of

-melanin.
-keratin.
-collagen.
-hemoglobin.
-carotene.

melanin

The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called

-cadmium.
-melanin.
-carotene
-hemoglobin.
-keratin.

carotene

Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum

-corneum.
-basale.
-lucidum.
-spinosum.
-granulosum.

basale

The skin appearance that results from dark-red hemoglobin is called

-jaundice.
-pallor.
-cyanosis.
-freckles.
-erythema.

cyanosis

Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?

-reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis
-production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells
-loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo
-increased activity by melanocytes
-chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes

loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo

Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight?

-vitamin A
-vitamin B
-vitamin C
-vitamin D
-vitamin E

vitamin D

Types of skin cancers include

-squamous cell carcinoma.
-malignant melanoma.
-basal cell carcinoma.
-actinic keratosis.
-squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, and basal cell carcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, and basal cell carcinoma

Which of the following statements about rickets is not true?

-It is usually genetic.
-It leads to skeletal deformity.
-It is prevented by sunlight.
-It leads to weak bones.
-It is prevented by vitamin D.

It is usually genetic.

Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin. To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in the diet?

-protein
-calcium
-cholecalciferol
-vitamin C
-retinol-A

cholecalciferol

A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is

-osteoporosis.
-decubitus ulcers.
-rickets.
-seborrheic dermatitis.
-beriberi.

rickets

Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called

-keratosis.
-squamous cell carcinoma.
-psoriasis.
-basal cell carcinoma
-melanoma.

basal cell carcinoma

Which of the following is not a function of epidermal growth factor (EGF)?

-stimulating synthetic activity and secretion by epithelial glands
-promoting the division of germinative cells in the stratum lucium
-stimulating epidermal repair after injury
-accelerating production of keratin

promoting the division of germinative cells in the stratum lucium

The epidermis receives blood containing oxygen and nutrients from which of the following?

-epidermal arteries
-veins of the subpapillary plexus
-from arteries in the connective tissue below
-dermal arteries called the cutaneous plexus

from arteries in the connective tissue below

Healthy skin cells require a constant supply of blood. In decubitus ulcers, or bed sores, this blood supply is hindered because superficial blood vessels are compressed. Which layer(s) of the skin hold(s) such compressed blood vessels?

-the stratum basale of the epidermis
-the stratum spinosum of the epidermis
-the papillary and reticular layers of the dermis
-All of the listed answers are correct.

All of the listed answers are correct.

Two women are comparable in age, body conformation, and are pregnant at the same time, but one experiences stretch marks, while the other does not. What would be a possible hypothesis for why there was an observed difference?

-The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio.
-The woman without stretch marks has more cholesterol in her diet, which affects her cell membranes.
-The woman with less stretch marks has larger skin cells.
-The woman may have different gender babies.

The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio.

The layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that are closest to the surface of the skin is the ________ layer.

-papillary
-subcutaneous
-epidermal
-hypodermal
-reticular

papillary

The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer.

-subcutaneous
-hypodermal
-reticular
-papillary
-epidermal

reticular

The protein that permits stretching and recoiling of the skin is

-elastin.
-keratin.
-carotene.
-collagen.
-melanin.

elastin

Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed

-dermatitis.
-superficialis.
-papillitis.
-melanocytis.
-epidermatitis.

dermatitis

A bruise turns "black and blue" because of ________ in the dermis.

-apparent cyanosis broken
-blood vessels
-a lack of oxygen
-hyperactive sebaceous glands
-the accumulation of pus

blood vessels

The clinical term for a bruise is a(n)

-contusion.
-infarction.
-sclerotome.
-thrombus.
-hemorrhage.

contusion

Which of the following layers is targeted by liposuction?

-the papillary layer of the dermis
-the reticular layer of the dermis
-the stratum corneum of the epidermis
-the hypodermis

the hypodermis

The skin can move easily over the underlying muscles because of the loose connective tissue within the __________.

-hypodermis
-epidermis
-dermis
-cutaneous membrane

hypodermis

The layer of hard keratin that coats the hair is termed the

-shaft.
-root.
-cuticle.
-hair bulb.
-medulla.

cuticle

Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by

-soft keratin.
-carotene cells.
-melanocytes.
-dermal papillae.
-keratinocytes.

melanocytes

Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs?

-exists primarily in fetuses
-never found on the feet
-deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse
-also known as "peach fuzz"
-persists throughout the entire life

exists primarily in fetuses

When the arrector pili muscles contract,

-hairs are shed.
-shivering occurs.
-"goose bumps" are formed.
-sweat is released from sweat glands.
-the skin changes color.

"goose bumps" are formed.

Which of the following glands secretes oil into the hair follicle?

-apocrine
-sebaceous
-ceruminous
-merocrine

sebaceous

Which of the following glands secrete a thick odorous secretion into the hair follicle?

-merocrine
-sebaceous
-apocrine
-ceruminous

apocrine

If someone has dry, brittle hair, what might be a possible explanation?

-reduced activity of merocrine sweat glands
-reduced activity of ceruminous glands
-reduced activity of mammary glands
-reduced activity of sebaceous glands

reduced activity of sebaceous glands

Cerumen is produced by glands located in the __________.

-palms and soles
-axilla
-pubic area
-ear canal

ear canal

Merocrine sweat glands are most abundant in the __________.

-axilla
-nipple area
-ear canal
-palms of hands

palms of hands

Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands.

-merocrine sweat
-sebaceous
-mammary
-apocrine sweat
-ceruminous

sebaceous

The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.

-sebaceous
-ceruminous
-merocrine sweat
-apocrine sweat
-axillary

apocrine sweat

Earwax is produced by ________ glands.

-merocrine sweat
-eccrine sweat
-sebaceous
-ceruminous
-apocrine sweat

ceruminous

Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal?

-Blood flow to the skin increases.
-Evaporative cooling stops.
-The activity of melanocytes increases.
-Sweat gland activity decreases.
-Circulation in the skin decreases.

Blood flow to the skin increases.

Merocrine sweat glands

-increase in number and activity with aging.
-produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor.
-are compound alveolar glands.
-primarily function in lubricating the hairs.
-secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.

secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.

Fingernails grow from which structure?

-nail root
-nail body
-hyponychium
-lunula

nail root

Nail production occurs at the nail

-hyponychium.
-bed.
-cuticle.
-root.
-body.

root

During which phase of injury has the scab been undermined by migrating epidermal cells resulting in decreased phagocytic activity and breaking down of the fibrin clot?

-proliferation
-scarring
-inflammatory
-migratory

proliferation

Mast cells are triggering a response to injury during which phase of repair?

-proliferation
-inflammatory
-scarring
-migratory

inflammatory

During which of the following phases does the shedding of the scab and a shallow depression of the epidermis mark the site of injury?

-inflammatory
-proliferation
-migratory
-scarring

scarring

Skin color may have a diagnostic function. Imagine one of your friends has an obvious orange tint to her skin. What would be a logical conclusion of your observation?

-She may have a real taste for consuming carrots.
-She may have a blood-clotting disorder.
-She may have overactive melanocytes.
-She may suffer from damage to her liver.

She may have a real taste for consuming carrots.

In a second-degree burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Which of the following functions of the skin is NOT typically affected by a second- degree burn?

-excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands
-protection against abrasion and fluid loss
-storage of lipids in the hypodermis
-All of these functions are impacted by a second-degree burn.

excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands

Some burn victims benefit from skin grafts cultured from their own skin cells. Which skin cells are the most likely candidates for such a culture?

-dendritic cells
-fibroblasts
-basal cells
-adipocytes

basal cells

A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n)

-abrasion.
-contusion.
-puncture.
-laceration.
-incision.

abrasion

In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.

-muscle cells
-fibroblasts
-macrophages
-dendritic cells
-granulation cells

fibroblasts

The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn.

-partial-thickness
-third-degree
-first-degree
-epidermal
-second-degree

third-degree

If a fair-skinned person is sunburned, why does his or her skin turn red?

-The blood flow to the skin increases.
-The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases.
-Carotene production greatly increases.
-Decreased heat causes the skin to turn red.
-Melanocytes increase production of red pigments.

The blood flow to the skin increases.

Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because

-stem cells persist in the skin even after injury.
-contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together.
-the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels.
-fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis.
-cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin.

stem cells persist in the skin even after injury.

Charlie is badly burned in an accident. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining physician finds that he can remove entire hair follicles from Charlie’s arm when he gently pulls on a hair with his forceps. Charlie is suffering from a(n) ________ burn.

-partial-thickness
-epidermal
-first-degree
-second-degree
-third-degree

third-degree

A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a

-keloid.
-plug.
-scar.
-scab.
-graft.

scab

If epithelial cell migration cannot cover a wound, ________ may be required.

-a biopsy
-radiation therapy
-chemotherapy
-amputation
-skin grafts

skin grafts

Why are the elderly more prone to skin infections?

-Tissue repairs take longer.
-They have fewer dendritic cells.
-They have a thinner epidermis.
-All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The effects of aging on the skin include

-a decreased number of sweat glands.
-an increased blood supply to the dermis.
-increased production of vitamin D.
-thickening of the epidermis.
-a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.

a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.

What type of tissue is the epidermis composed of?

-Stratified Squamous Epithelium
-Loose Areolar Connective Tissue
-Simple Squamous Epithelium
-Dense Irregular Connective Tissue
-Keratinocytes

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

The epidermis has several layers. Which layers of the epidermis would be different in thick skin compared to a sample of thin skin?

-Stratum Corneum
-Stratum Spinosum
-Stratum Basale
-Stratum Granulosum
-Stratum Lucidum

Stratum Corneum Stratum Lucidum

Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for water resistance?

-Stratum Basale
-Stratum Spinosum
-Stratum Granulosum
-Stratum Corneum

Stratum Corneum

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