Which of these is NOT one of the four recognized tissue types? -neural tissue |
nasal tissue |
The study of tissues is called: -micrology. |
histology |
Which surface attaches to the underlying epithelial cells or deeper tissues? -lateral |
basolateral |
Which adhesion is required for cell-to-cell communication? -gap junctions |
gap junctions |
Many types of epithelial cells perform the function of __________. -contraction |
secretion |
Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except -attachment. |
extracellular matrix |
The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the -gap junction. |
gap junction |
Functions of epithelia include all of the following except -absorption. |
supporting muscle cells. |
Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by -a reticular lamina. |
a basement membrane. |
Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach? -simple squamous epithelium |
simple columnar epithelium |
In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant? -hemidesmosomes |
desmosomes |
An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface. -topical |
apical |
Which epithelium is responsible for protection, secretion, and absorption? -simple cuboidal transitional |
stratified cuboidal |
Exfoliative cytology involves the removal of epithelial cells for examination. Which of the following is NOT a clinical application of exfoliative cytology? -examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack |
examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack |
In exfoliative cytology, epithelial cells are removed and examined without any lasting damage to the tissue from which these cells are removed. Why is there usually NO lasting damage? -Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration. |
Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration. |
Simple squamous epithelium is found __________. -covering the skin |
lining blood vessels |
The urinary bladder is lined by __________. -simple cuboidal epithelium |
transitional epithelium |
Cells that are flat and thin are classified as -cuboidal. |
squamous |
The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are -squamous and simple. |
simple and stratified. |
The pancreas produces ________ secretions. -serous and sebaceous mucous and acid |
exocrine and endocrine |
The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as -perithelium. |
mesothelium |
Gland cells produce -mesenchyme. |
secretions |
Which cell is present in many connective tissues that can differentiate into different types of cell? -adipocytes |
mesenchymal |
Which white blood cell is important in removing foreign bacteria? -erythrocyte |
monocyte |
A marked loss in strength and elasticity of connective tissue characterizes Marfan’s syndrome. Which connective tissue component imparts strength and elasticity? -fibroblasts |
proteinaceous connective tissue fibers |
It has been shown that as a person ages, the amount of collagen in the skin decreases and becomes more disorganized. Of the choices below, which is the best explanation for why this happens? -Reticular fibers become more abundant as we age. |
Fibroblasts become less active as we age. |
Blood is which type of tissue? -epithelial |
connective |
Cells that store fat are called -lipocytes. |
adipocytes |
The three categories of connective tissues are -connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. |
connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. |
The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are -tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments. |
collagen, reticular, and elastic. |
Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except -cushioning and stabilizing. |
providing strong connections between muscles and bones. |
Antibodies are produced by -fibroblasts. |
plasma cells |
The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and -serous fluid. |
lymph |
In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine. -mast |
mast |
TO celebrate her 50th birthday, Anna got her ear pierced in the elastic cartilage portion (pinna). The piercing specialist informed her that it will take at least 6 weeks to heal. This is because __________. -osseous tissue replaces the cartilage matrix |
cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer |
The most common type of cartilage is ________ cartilage. -hyaline |
hyaline |
Osseous tissue is also called -bone. |
bone |
Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels. -leukocytes |
chondrocytes |
A patient goes to his doctor because he has noticed a pain and a rubbing sound when he breathes. The patient has also noticed that his abdomen has gotten bigger – but he eats a healthy diet. What is most likely the cause of the patient’s condition? -The mucous membranes have decreased mucus production due to injury to the epithelium, resulting in an accumulation of mucus in the abdomen. |
The serous membranes are inflamed and scratching against one another, resulting in pleurisy. |
The serous membrane covering the lungs is the __________. -peritoneum |
pleura |
The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the -periosteum. |
peritoneum |
The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of -the lamina propria. |
serous membranes. |
The term transudate describes fluid associated with -serous membranes. |
serous membranes. |
The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the -lamina propria. |
lamina propria. |
Anne Marie has a condition called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that affects the connective tissue found in her joints and skin. What are the characteristics of connective tissue? -All types of connective tissue have specialized cells embedded in a matrix composed of extracellular fibers and ground substance. |
All types of connective tissue have specialized cells embedded in a matrix composed of extracellular fibers and ground substance. |
What are the different types of connective tissue? -Connective tissue can be divided into areolar and reticular tissues. |
Connective tissue can be divided into three main types: connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. |
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome specifically affects collagen fibers. What other types of fibers in addition to collagen are found in connective tissue? -ligaments and tendons microfilaments and intermediate fibers |
Reticular and elastic fibers are also found in connective tissues. |
Because connective tissue is found throughout the body, more than just Anne Marie’s joints and skin could be affected by Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. What is fascia and where is it found? -Fascia is the areolar tissue component of a mucus membrane that anchors it to the surrounding tissue. |
Fasciae are layers of connective tissue that surround and support organs. |
Deep fascia refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds __________. -hypodermis |
a muscle |
The type of muscle tissue that does not contain gap junctions is __________. -smooth |
skeletal |
Myosatellite cells are found within __________ muscle. -skeletal |
skeletal |
Which structure typically receives information from other neurons? -neuroglia |
dendrite |
Which of the following is NOT a property of neuroglia? -They repair neural tissue. |
They conduct electrical impulses. |
Which of these carries information from the neural cell body to the next cell? -lymphatic vessels |
axons |
All of the following are true of neurons except that -they are separated from one another by synapses. |
they are a very specialized form of connective tissue. |
________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells. -Neurons |
Neuroglia |
Mast cells, in the process of stimulating an inflammatory response, secrete all EXCEPT which of the following? -heparin |
interleukin-1 |
During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury? -increase in blood flow |
cold, pale skin |
The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is called -necrosis. |
fibrosis |
The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium? -transitional epithelium |
simple squamous epithelium |
The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium? -ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium |
simple cuboidal epithelium |
The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue? -stratified squamous epithelium |
stratified squamous epithelium |
Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron? -soma |
soma |
Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei? -smooth |
skeletal |
Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control? -smooth |
cardiac |
What is the functional classification of this type of joint? (knee) -diarthrosis |
diarthrosis |
What is the classification of this type of joint? (lambdoid suture) -amphiarthrosis |
synarthrosis |
What is the classification of this type of joint? (pubic symphysis) -diarthrosis |
amphiarthrosis |
Joints can be classified structurally as -bony. |
All of the answers are correct. |
The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a -synchondrosis. |
gomphosis. |
An immovable joint is a(n) -synarthrosis. |
synarthrosis. |
A synovial joint is an example of a(n) -synarthrosis. |
diarthrosis. |
A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a -symphysis. |
syndesmosis. |
A slightly movable joint is a(n) -diarthrosis. |
amphiarthrosis. |
A suture is an example of a(n) -diarthrosis. |
synarthrosis. |
An epiphyseal line is an example of a -symphysis. |
synostosis. |
An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the -navicular bone with the cuniform bones. |
ribs with the sternum. |
A freely movable joint is a(n) -diarthrosis. |
diarthrosis. |
The intervertebral disc joint is called a -symphysis. |
symphysis |
Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to -periodontal ligament. |
fibrous cartilage. |
Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation. -bony |
cartilaginous |
Identify the incorrect pair. -gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone |
chondrosis; freely moving joint |
Give a function of the structure indicated by the arrow. (fat pad) -Fill spaces in a joint. |
Fill spaces in a joint. |
The fluid within Bursae functions to cushion structures in or around a joint. In Bursitis, excessive fluid accumulates and joint movements become painful. What is the name of this fluid within healthy bursae? -pus |
synovial fluid |
Dislocations are more common in highly movable joints. Which of the following types of joints would be least likely to dislocate? -a fibrous syndesmosis |
a bony synostosis |
What is the trade off for joints with greater movement? -Joints with greater movement have less flexibility. |
Joints with greater movement have less stability. |
The fluid that fills the joint cavity in a diarthrosis is produced by the __________. -synovial membrane |
synovial membrane |
Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? -The matrix begins to break down. |
All of the answers are correct. |
Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? -provides nutrients |
increases osmotic pressure within joint |
Bursae are found in all of the following areas except -around blood vessels. |
around blood vessels. |
Which of the following is not a property of articular cartilage? -similar to hyaline cartilage |
covered by perichondrium |
The surface of articular cartilage is -rough. |
both slick and smooth. |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage? -It is composed of cartilage similar to hyaline cartilage. |
It secretes synovial fluid. |
Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? -freely movable |
covered by a serous membrane |
A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position. -bunion |
dislocation |
A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe. -pimple |
bunion |
The opposite of supination is __________. -dorsiflexion |
pronation |
The opposite of dorsiflexion is __________. -ventroflexion |
plantar flexion |
Ankle extension is also called -eversion. |
plantar flexion. |
A movement away from the midline of the body is called -abduction. |
abduction |
The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint. -hinge |
saddle |
The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the -foot. |
foot |
The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. -gliding |
hinge |
Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? -shoulder |
shoulder |
Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes? -dorsiflexion |
plantar flexion |
Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? -flexion |
elevation |
The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________ rotation. -lateral |
lateral |
The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint. -pivot |
pivot |
The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is -lateral rotation and medial rotation. |
supination and pronation. |
Which structure of the intervertebral articulation gives the disc its resiliency and ability to absorb shock? -anulus fibrosus |
nucleus pulposus |
Which structure of the intervertebral disc attaches to the bodies of adjacent vertebra? -nucleus pulposus |
anulus fibrosus |
How is a bulging disc different from a herniated disc? -In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus protrudes into the nucleus pulposus. |
In a bulging disk, the annulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal. |
A chiropractor manipulates joints, specifically the vertebral joints, to correct subluxations. What is another way to state this? -A dislocation can only be corrected by a chiropractor. |
A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations. |
Tom was experiencing pain, numbness, and weakness after he lifted a heavy box. Which of the following is the most likely injury that occurred? -a herniated intervertebral disc |
a herniated intervertebral disc |
All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints except -flexion. |
dorsiflexion. |
A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by -ossification of the vertebral disc. |
protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. |
A herniated disc occurs when the -nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus. |
nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus. |
The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint. -sacroiliac |
sacroiliac |
Which of the following sports positions would most likely be associated with a rotator cuff injury? -a quarterback |
a quarterback |
The joint with greatest range of motion is the __________. -humerus-ulna |
humerus-scapula |
Which of the following is false? -The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. |
The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. |
The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to -reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements. |
reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements. |
The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the -radial joint. |
humero-ulnar joint. |
During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged? -the lateral collateral ligament |
the lateral meniscus |
A torn lateral collateral ligament destabilizes the connection between which of the following bones? -the femur and the tibia |
the femur and the fibula |
In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci -are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones. |
act as cushions between the articulating surfaces. |
The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves -abduction. |
both flexion and extension. |
Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because -the knee contains seven major ligaments. |
the knee contains seven major ligaments. |
The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the -patella. |
medial meniscus. |
Jessica’s mother takes her to see her pediatrician, who refers her to a rheumatologist, a doctor who specializes in rheumatic diseases. This doctor withdraws some synovial fluid using a small needle from Jessica’s warm, swollen, tender knee that has limited motion. What types of joint are freely movable like the knee? -Synchrondroses are freely movable joints. |
Diarthroses are freely movable joints. |
Jessica’s knee is a synovial joint. What type of synovial joint is the knee, and what movements is this joint capable of? -pivot joint capable of rotation |
hinge joint capable of monaxial movement |
Jessica is suffering from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, the most common type of childhood arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the synovial membrane. What treatment would you recommend for Jessica? -immune suppressants |
gentle exercise and NSAIDs |
Rheumatoid arthritis is just one of several types of arthritis. What do all types of arthritis have in common? -crystals of uric acid |
destruction of cartilage |
Which of these conditions more commonly occurs with advancing age? -rheumatoid arthritis |
osteoarthritis |
Which of the following occurs as part of osteoarthritis? -Cartilage breaks down. -Cartilage develops shredded surface. |
All of the listed responses are correct. |
The clinical term for joint inflammation is -atherosclerosis. |
arthritis. |
Which term describes a complex movement that includes both changing the angle at a joint and then moving the distal bone in a circular direction? -Rotation |
Circumduction |
Look at the following joint (shoulder). Based on the bony composition of the joint shown, which term best describes this joint’s axial movement? -This joint’s axial movement cannot be determined. |
Triaxial |
Which terms describe the types of movement allowed at the thumb? -Angular motion |
-Angular motion -Biaxial |
Which of these is NOT a primary function of the skeletal system? -storage of minerals and lipids |
movement |
Which of the following functions of the skeletal system is most affected by gravity? -protection of internal organs |
body support |
Which of these is NOT part of the skeletal system? -ligaments |
tendons |
Which of following is a function of the skeletal system? -calcium homeostasis |
All of the answers are correct. |
Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? -other tissues that connect bones |
tendons |
What is the classification of this bone according to its shape? (lambdoid) -sutural |
sutural |
Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape? -vertebra |
vertebra |
The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the -periphyses. |
epiphyses |
The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones. -sesamoid |
short |
The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone. -long |
long |
A shallow depression on a bone is termed a -fissure. |
fossa |
The shaft of long bones is called the -paraphysis. |
diaphysis |
A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley. -trabeculae |
trochlea |
A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a -tuberosity. |
tuberosity |
Osteoclasts function to __________. -build bone |
break down bone |
Osteoblasts differentiate from __________. -osteocytes |
osteogenic cells |
Bone is composed of ________ percent cells. -15 |
2 |
Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte? -immature bone cell |
mature bone cell |
Through the action of osteoclasts, -bony matrix is dissolved. |
bony matrix is dissolved. |
The most abundant cell type in bone is -osteoprogenitor cells. |
osteocytes |
The lacunae of osseous tissue contain -bone marrow. |
osteocytes |
How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone? -The bone would be stronger. |
The bone would be more flexible. |
Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________ cells. -osteotrophic |
osteoprogenitor |
________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints. -A synovial membrane |
Articular cartilage |
Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the -osteoblasts. |
osteoclasts |
The organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone is called -osteon. |
osteoid |
The central canal of an osteon contains -bone marrow. |
blood vessels |
The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called -lacunae. |
trabeculae |
The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. -compact |
spongy |
The structural units of mature compact bone are called -osteocytes. |
osteons |
Adipose tissue is stored within the -metaphysis. |
medullary cavity |
Which of the following is a characteristic of bone? -For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae. |
The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. |
________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone. -Blue |
Red |
The lining of the medullary cavity is called the -epiosteum. |
endosteum |
________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. -Short |
spongy |
The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are -circumferential lamellae. |
circumferential lamellae |
Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix? -Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone. |
Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite. |
The trabeculae of spongy bone -are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. |
are organized along stress lines. |
Migration of blood vessels into the central region of the cartilage bone model, starting bone development, occurs at which site? -primary ossification center |
primary ossification center |
Heterotopic bone formation is a term used to describe bones that develop in unusual places. Such unusual bone development relies on the presence of bone-building cells called __________. -osteoprogenitor cells |
osteoblasts |
Wearing inappropriately tight shoes can put undue pressure on feet. Such pressure may then lead to painful heterotopic bone formation in the soft tissues of the foot. Which of the following bone shapes correctly describes the round nature of these bones? -short |
sesamoid |
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage? -osseous cartilage |
hyaline cartilage |
The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as -calcification. |
calcification |
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification? -clavicle |
the roof of the skull and the clavicle |
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n) -calcified model. |
cartilage model. |
Secondary ossification centers occur -in the diaphysis. |
in the epiphyses. |
Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells. -osteoblast |
mesenchymal |
Which of the following statements about Marfan’s syndrome is false? -It results in short, stubby fingers. |
It results in short, stubby fingers. |
Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of -growth of trabeculae. |
cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis. |
Intramembranous ossification -explains how a juvenile’s bone can grow in length. |
produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull. |
Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the -periosteum. |
diaphysis. |
During appositional growth -compact bone replaces spongy bone. |
bones grow wider |
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, -the bone becomes more brittle. |
long bones have reached their adult length. |
When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates -are hardly affected. |
become narrower |
A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of -bone spurs. |
heterotopic bone formation. |
What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification? -connective tissue membranes |
hyaline cartilage |
In normal adult bones, -exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling. |
a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. |
The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called -remodeling. |
remodeling |
Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children? -parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
calcitonin |
PTH promotes the formation of which hormone? -calcitonin |
calcitriol |
Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?) -increase osteoclasts |
increase osteoblasts on bone |
Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels? -parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
calcitriol |
How is giantism similar to acromegaly? -Both disorders stem from aberrations in the mesenchymal membranes of the embryonic skeleton. |
Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth. |
Marfan’s syndrome is a disorder associated with excessive growth in length of limbs and digits, giving the afflicted individual a tall and lanky appearance. What is the clinical term for bone growth in length? -intramembranous ossification |
interstitial growth |
Calcitriol is required for __________. -absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate |
absorbing dietary calcium and phosphate |
A lack of exercise could -cause bones to store more calcium. |
result in porous and weak bones. |
When stress is applied to a bone, -the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts. |
the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts. |
Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in -osteopenia. |
gigantism |
________ hormones stimulate osteoblasts to produce bone matrix. -Growth |
sex |
Which hormone increases blood calcium upon secretion? -estrogen and testosterone -growth hormone |
parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
Calcitonin causes what response in the kidneys? -elimination of calcium ions into the urine |
elimination of calcium ions into the urine |
The most abundant mineral in the human body is -calcium. |
calcium |
Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone -thyroid hormone. |
calcitonin |
The hormone calcitonin functions to -decrease the rate of calcium absorption. |
decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. |
Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways except -raising the level of calcium ion in the blood. |
inhibiting calcitonin secretion. |
A child with rickets often has -inadequate muscle development. |
bowed legs. |
Alex and his mother both suffer from osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), which means the imperfect formation of bone. Which bone cells are responsible for the formation of new bone matrix? -Osteocytes are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix. |
Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix. |
Bone is a type of connective tissue, with specialized cells embedded in a matrix. What does the matrix of bone consist of? -Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone. |
Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone. |
There currently is no cure for OI, and treatments are often aimed at preventing or controlling symptoms. One common treatment is rodding surgery, where a metal rod is inserted into a long bone to strengthen and prevent deformity. Using what you know about the structure of a typical long bone, what part of the long bone is the most likely place for this rod to be inserted? -the distal epiphysis |
the medullary cavity of the diaphysis |
Alex had incurred previous fractures that were already in the process of healing when he went to the emergency room for his current injury. What is the correct sequence of events in the repair of a fracture? -mesenchymal clustering, osteoblast differentiation, ossification, penetration of blood vessels, formation and remodeling of spongy bone |
hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation |
Which of the following is formed immediately after a fracture? -internal callus |
hematoma |
After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the -dense tuberosity. |
external callus. |
A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture. -displaced |
Pott’s |
While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott’s fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? -hematoma |
hematoma |
A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone. -comminuted |
spiral |
Some older women lose height as they age. What would explain this change in stature? -Osteoporosis causes compression of the vertebrae. |
Osteoporosis causes compression of the vertebrae. |
Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following except that it -is released in large amounts early in life. |
is released in large amounts early in life. |
A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is called -osteoporosis. |
osteoporosis. |
The condition known as osteopenia -affects mostly women. |
causes a gradual reduction in bone mass. |
If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition? -bone fragility |
All of the answers are correct. |
Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for Mary? -vitamin C |
All of the answers are correct. |
Which portion of the developing long bone ossifies before the other portions? Choose the best answer. -Epiphysis |
Diaphysis |
Which cells divide rapidly on the epiphyseal side at the epiphyseal plate, resulting in lengthening of the bone? -Chondrocytes |
Chondrocytes |
Appositional and interstitial growth occurs in two different directions. Below, interstitial and appositional growths are paired with descriptions. Which of the pairings are correct? -Interstitial growth: Bone gets longer, Lengthening of cartilage model. Appositional growth: Bone gets wider. Appositional growth: Bone grows at the diaphyseal surface. |
Interstitial growth: Bone gets longer, Lengthening of cartilage model. Appositional growth: Bone gets wider. Appositional growth: Bone grows at the diaphyseal surface. |
Every day your epidermis normally sheds dead skin cells. What is the first step in the process by which epidermal cells are replaced? -Basal cells in the stratum germinativum divide, adding in new daughter cells and pushing the cells above upward through the layers. |
Basal cells in the stratum germinativum divide, adding in new daughter cells and pushing the cells above upward through the layers. |
Harold has psoriasis, a skin disorder that speeds up the life cycle of the skin cells. The keratinocytes mature too rapidly, and dead skin cells build up on the epidermal surface in scaly patches. How does a cell become keratinized? -Keratinocytes of the stratum corneum start producing a thick extracellular layer of keratin fibers, which surround the cell, making it impermeable to nutrients. The cell eventually dies and becomes the dead keratinized cell of the stratum corneum. |
As the cells migrate through the stratum spinosum, they continue to divide, but when they reach the stratum granulosum, they stop dividing and start producing large amounts of keratin and keratohyalin. As the keratin fibers accumulate (keratinization), the nuclei and organelles disintegrate, and the cell dies. |
One of the more interesting treatments for psoriasis involves the use of the "doctor fish" (Garra rufa). Psoriasis sufferers will submerge themselves in a tank filled with these tiny fish. The fish nibble away at the outermost layer of the epidermis, removing dead skin cells and the scaly psoriasis patches. Which layer of the epidermis is the "doctor fish" removing? -the hypodermis |
stratum corneum |
Psoriasis is a debilitating condition marked by chronic inflammation. In healthy skin, inflammation is part of the normal response to an injury. What is the next step to follow inflammation during tissue repair? -Bleeding, swelling, and redness occur while mast cells release cytokines that attract phagocytic cells to the site of the region. |
The next step is the migratory phase. Following the formation of a scab, phagocytic cells clear debris while cells from the stratum basale migrate along the edges of the wound. Fibroblasts and mesenchymal cells divide, producing mobile cells that invade the deeper areas of the wound, and vessel endothelial cells divide to repair damaged blood vessels. |
What structure is responsible for increasing surface area to provide for the strength of attachment between the epidermis and dermis? -epidermal ridge |
epidermal ridge |
Which of these is NOT an accessory structure of the skin? -hair follicles |
dermis |
Normally, how long do skin cells last before being shed or sloughed off? -7 days |
21-24 days |
The epidermal layer that consists almost entirely of keratin is the __________. -reticular layer |
stratum corneum |
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except -protection of underlying tissue. |
synthesis of vitamin C. |
The two components of the integumentary system are the -cutaneous membrane and accessory structures. |
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures. |
The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are -adipocytes. |
keratinocytes |
The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum -granulosum. |
corneum |
Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum -granulosum. |
corneum |
The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the -dermis. |
epidermis |
________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. -Dendritic cells |
Dendritic cells |
Water loss from insensible perspiration -is approximately 0.5 liters a day. |
is approximately 0.5 liters a day. |
The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue? -areolar connective tissue |
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium |
The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the -basal lamina. |
stratum basale. |
Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called -scabs. |
blisters |
Melanocytes __________. -are located in the stratum corneum |
store melanin in melanosomes |
Skin cancers are the most common form of cancers and they range from benign to malignant. Which of the following types of skin cancers is considered the most common but also the LEAST dangerous? -basal cell carcinoma |
basal cell carcinoma |
ABCD is an easy mnemonic device that is used while inspecting suspicious moles for indicators of skin cancer. Which of the following letters is NOT correctly matched with its definition? -C = Color |
D = density |
Sheila is an American Indian, Jordan is an African American, and Melissa is Asian American. List these individuals in the order of who has the most melanocytes to the least. -Jordan, Sheila, Melissa |
The order does not matter because they all have roughly the same number of melanocytes. |
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce -eleidin. |
melanin |
All of the following are true of the pigment melanin, except that it -is usually some shade of brown or black. |
decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun. |
Cyanosis signifies that a patient has -been exposed to cyanide. |
oxygen-starved skin. |
Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration. -brown |
yellowish |
Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by increasing the production of -melanin. |
melanin |
The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called -cadmium. |
carotene |
Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum -corneum. |
basale |
The skin appearance that results from dark-red hemoglobin is called -jaundice. |
cyanosis |
Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation? -reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis |
loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo |
Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight? -vitamin A |
vitamin D |
Types of skin cancers include -squamous cell carcinoma. |
squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, and basal cell carcinoma |
Which of the following statements about rickets is not true? -It is usually genetic. |
It is usually genetic. |
Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin. To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in the diet? -protein |
cholecalciferol |
A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is -osteoporosis. |
rickets |
Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called -keratosis. |
basal cell carcinoma |
Which of the following is not a function of epidermal growth factor (EGF)? -stimulating synthetic activity and secretion by epithelial glands |
promoting the division of germinative cells in the stratum lucium |
The epidermis receives blood containing oxygen and nutrients from which of the following? -epidermal arteries |
from arteries in the connective tissue below |
Healthy skin cells require a constant supply of blood. In decubitus ulcers, or bed sores, this blood supply is hindered because superficial blood vessels are compressed. Which layer(s) of the skin hold(s) such compressed blood vessels? -the stratum basale of the epidermis |
All of the listed answers are correct. |
Two women are comparable in age, body conformation, and are pregnant at the same time, but one experiences stretch marks, while the other does not. What would be a possible hypothesis for why there was an observed difference? -The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio. |
The woman with stretch marks has a greater collagen-to-elastic fiber ratio. |
The layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that are closest to the surface of the skin is the ________ layer. -papillary |
papillary |
The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer. -subcutaneous |
reticular |
The protein that permits stretching and recoiling of the skin is -elastin. |
elastin |
Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed -dermatitis. |
dermatitis |
A bruise turns "black and blue" because of ________ in the dermis. -apparent cyanosis broken |
blood vessels |
The clinical term for a bruise is a(n) -contusion. |
contusion |
Which of the following layers is targeted by liposuction? -the papillary layer of the dermis |
the hypodermis |
The skin can move easily over the underlying muscles because of the loose connective tissue within the __________. -hypodermis |
hypodermis |
The layer of hard keratin that coats the hair is termed the -shaft. |
cuticle |
Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by -soft keratin. |
melanocytes |
Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs? -exists primarily in fetuses |
exists primarily in fetuses |
When the arrector pili muscles contract, -hairs are shed. |
"goose bumps" are formed. |
Which of the following glands secretes oil into the hair follicle? -apocrine |
sebaceous |
Which of the following glands secrete a thick odorous secretion into the hair follicle? -merocrine |
apocrine |
If someone has dry, brittle hair, what might be a possible explanation? -reduced activity of merocrine sweat glands |
reduced activity of sebaceous glands |
Cerumen is produced by glands located in the __________. -palms and soles |
ear canal |
Merocrine sweat glands are most abundant in the __________. -axilla |
palms of hands |
Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands. -merocrine sweat |
sebaceous |
The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty. -sebaceous |
apocrine sweat |
Earwax is produced by ________ glands. -merocrine sweat |
ceruminous |
Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal? -Blood flow to the skin increases. |
Blood flow to the skin increases. |
Merocrine sweat glands -increase in number and activity with aging. |
secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin. |
Fingernails grow from which structure? -nail root |
nail root |
Nail production occurs at the nail -hyponychium. |
root |
During which phase of injury has the scab been undermined by migrating epidermal cells resulting in decreased phagocytic activity and breaking down of the fibrin clot? -proliferation |
proliferation |
Mast cells are triggering a response to injury during which phase of repair? -proliferation |
inflammatory |
During which of the following phases does the shedding of the scab and a shallow depression of the epidermis mark the site of injury? -inflammatory |
scarring |
Skin color may have a diagnostic function. Imagine one of your friends has an obvious orange tint to her skin. What would be a logical conclusion of your observation? -She may have a real taste for consuming carrots. |
She may have a real taste for consuming carrots. |
In a second-degree burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Which of the following functions of the skin is NOT typically affected by a second- degree burn? -excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands |
excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands |
Some burn victims benefit from skin grafts cultured from their own skin cells. Which skin cells are the most likely candidates for such a culture? -dendritic cells |
basal cells |
A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n) -abrasion. |
abrasion |
In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis. -muscle cells |
fibroblasts |
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn. -partial-thickness |
third-degree |
If a fair-skinned person is sunburned, why does his or her skin turn red? -The blood flow to the skin increases. |
The blood flow to the skin increases. |
Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because -stem cells persist in the skin even after injury. |
stem cells persist in the skin even after injury. |
Charlie is badly burned in an accident. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining physician finds that he can remove entire hair follicles from Charlie’s arm when he gently pulls on a hair with his forceps. Charlie is suffering from a(n) ________ burn. -partial-thickness |
third-degree |
A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a -keloid. |
scab |
If epithelial cell migration cannot cover a wound, ________ may be required. -a biopsy |
skin grafts |
Why are the elderly more prone to skin infections? -Tissue repairs take longer. |
All of the listed responses are correct. |
The effects of aging on the skin include -a decreased number of sweat glands. |
a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands. |
What type of tissue is the epidermis composed of? -Stratified Squamous Epithelium |
Stratified Squamous Epithelium |
The epidermis has several layers. Which layers of the epidermis would be different in thick skin compared to a sample of thin skin? -Stratum Corneum |
Stratum Corneum Stratum Lucidum |
Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for water resistance? -Stratum Basale |
Stratum Corneum |
A&P EXAM 2
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