A&P Chap 10,11,12,13,14

Muscles are only able to pull, they never push.

True

Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called antagonists.

False

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

An agonist

What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?

A synergist

Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?

During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.

Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.

True

Which functional group has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement?

Agonists

________ are the muscles primarily responsible for producing a particular movement.

Agonists

Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.

Antagonist

Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle.

Fixator

Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement.

Agonist

Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement.

Synergist

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle’s name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?

The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?

Type of muscle fibers.

What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?

extensor digitorum longus

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.

Antagonist

Which of the following muscles is named for its origin and insertion?

sternocleidomastoid

Which of the following muscles is named for its action?

levator labii superioris

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles?

whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system

Which is CORRECTLY matched?

rectus: straight

A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.

False

Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.

False

Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.

False

Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage.

True

The arrangement of a muscle’s fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

True

Muscle power does not depend on the direction of the fascicles.

True

Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?

First-class lever

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

The total number of muscle cells available for contraction.

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.

The load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum.

If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF?

third-class lever

What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?

Power Levers

First-class levers

in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location

Which of the following movements demonstrates a first-class lever?

raising your head up off your chest

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle

Most skeletal muscles of the body act in ________.

Third-class lever systems

The more a muscle shortens during a contraction, the greater the power of the muscle.

False

The anterior muscles of the thigh that originate on the os coxae are __________.

sartorius; rectus femoris

The brachialis muscle is located __________ to the biceps brachii muscle.

deep

The brachioradialis is a strong forearm __________.

Flexor

The fibers of the iliocostalis muscle are divided into which three regions?

lumbar, thoracic, and cervical

The actions of the internal obliques include __________.

compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration

The actions of the internal intercostals are most important during __________.

forced expiration

The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the __________.

brachialis

The prime mover of elbow extension is the __________.

triceps brachii

The __________ is a prime mover of the glenohumeral joint during flexion.

Deltoid

Which of the following muscles assists during extension of the glenohumeral joint, but is not as a prime mover?

Teres major

Without lateral rotation of the humerus by the teres minor and infraspinatus muscles, the maximum angle of abduction by the deltoid would be __________.

90 degrees

Abduction requires the action of two muscles, and adduction requires the action of __________.

Four muscles

The prime mover of hip extension is the __________.

Gluteus Maximus

The tensor fascia latae is involved in hip __________.

Abduction

The actions of the muscles that cross the hip do not include __________.

Inversion

To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint.

popliteus

To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________.

Located in the same plane

The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________.

acromion of the scapula

The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________.

elevation

Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle?

scapular protraction and rotation

Which movement is not associated with the scapula?

opposition

The prime mover of dorsiflexion is the __________.

tibialis anterior

Eversion of the foot is a function of the __________.

fibularis longus

The most powerful movement at the ankle joint is __________, and the ________ is one of the prime movers of this movement.

plantar flexion; gastrocnemius

Which joint is considered the most flexible joint in the body?

The shoulder joint

Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into groups based on __________.

distribution and functional relationships

Which of the following groups of muscles are not muscles of the shoulder?

the anterior flexor muscles

Muscles that act on the knee joint form most of the mass of the __________.

Thigh

The tensor fasciae latae stabilizes the hip joint and the __________ joint.

Knee

The vastus intermedius __________ the leg at the knee.

extends

Which muscle is the prime mover of arm abduction? Select from letters A-E.

E

Which muscle is the prime mover of arm abduction? Select from letters A-D.

A

Which muscle is known as the "boxer’s muscle" for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as if throwing a punch? Select from letters A-D.

D

Which letter represents the brachialis muscle? Select from letters A-D.

B

Which muscle is an antagonist to the biceps brachii muscle? Select from letters A-D.

D

Which muscle has three origins? Select from letters A-D.

D

Which muscle helps a person to cross a leg when seated? Select from letters A-D.

B

Which muscle has a unipennate arrangement of fascicles? Select from letters A-D.

C

Which muscle is the prime mover of dorsiflexion? Selection from letters A-D.

D

Muscles that help form the floor of the oral cavity are the ________.

Suprahyoid Muscles

The major head flexor muscles are the ________.

sternocleidomastoid muscles

The primary function of the deep muscles of the thorax is to promote ________.

Breathing

The muscle that subdivides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the ________.

Diaphragm

Which muscle acts as both a knee (leg) extensor and hip (thigh) flexor?

Rectus Femoris

Which of the following is NOT involved in chewing/biting?

Styloglossus

Choose the FALSE statement.

The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion

A young pregnant woman went to a childbirth class and the instructor informed them about strengthening the muscles of the pelvic floor. What are these muscles, and why should she strengthen them?

Levator ani and coccygeus; strengthening these muscles helps in the delivery of the child by resisting downward forces when "pushing."

Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?

Latissimus Dorsi

Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?

They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity

The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?

to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction

Which of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle?

Levator scapulae

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

the frontal belly of the epicranius

A cute, little curly-haired child is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?

genioglossus

Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position?

Sartorius

Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?

The Gastrocnemius

Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?

rectus abdominis

Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?

gracilis

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?

Buccinator

Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis.

Sternocleidomastoid

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?

It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.

Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?

thigh adductors

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?

the brachioradialis

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?

iliopsoas and rectus femoris

Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid muscles have in common?

All act on the tongue

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?

adductor magnus

Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?

tibialis anterior

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?

vastus lateralis

Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?

hamstring muscles

Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?

teres major

Where are most of the muscles that move the hand located?

forearm

Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?

biceps femoris

Which is(are) the most important muscle(s) of inspiration (inhalation)?

diaphragm

The ________ muscles compress the cheeks to help keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth while chewing

buccinator

Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?

popliteus

The muscle that prevents the biting of the cheek when chewing is the buccinator.

True

The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction.

False

Deep muscles of the thorax promote movements for breathing.

True

The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion

True

In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used.

True

The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone.

True

The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest, strongest tendon in the body.

True

The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.

True

Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction.

True

Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech.

True

The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles, not bones.

True

Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles.

True

Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.

True

Which of the choices below describes the ANS?

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?

analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?

innervation of skeletal muscle

The overlapping functions of the nervous system are sensory input, integration, and motor output.

True

The autonomic nervous system is under voluntary control; whereas, the somatic nervous system is involuntary.

False

The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

Brain and spinal cord

What part of the nervous system performs information processing and integration?

Central nervous system

Which of the following is NOT one of the basic functions of the nervous system?

regulation of neurogenesis

Which of the following allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles?

somatic nervous system

Cold sores on the skin of the mouth occur when herpes simplex viruses that are dormant in neural ganglia become active and travel to the skin of the mouth. Which of the following is the mechanism by which these viruses travel from the ganglia (located within the head) to the skin of the mouth?

anterograde axonal transport

Which of the neuroglial cell types shown is the most abundant in the CNS?

B

Which of the neuroglial cell types shown control the flow of cerebrospinal fluid within the CNS?

D

Which of the neuroglial cell types shown form myelin sheaths within the CNS?

A

Which of the neuroglial cell types shown are found in the PNS?

E

What structural classification describes the neuron associated with the neuroglia shown by E and F?

unipolar

Destruction of which of the neuroglial cell types leads to the disease multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A

Which lettered region in the figure is referred to as the soma?

B

Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.

True

Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.

True

Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.

True

The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

True

The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral neuron processes.

False

Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.

True

If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

True

Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?

provide the defense for the CNS

What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?

ependymal cells

Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.

found in the retina of the eye

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.

axon

Collections of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called ________.

ganglia

A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________

association neuron

Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering ions such as potassium and recapturing and recycling neurotransmitters are ________.

astrocytes

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.

Oligodendrocytes

What structural classification describes this neuron?

multipolar

Which areas of this neuron would be classified as receptive regions?

Both A and B

Which area would contain an abundance of vesicles containing neurotransmitter?

E

Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?

They are mitotic

Which neuroglia are the most abundant and versatile of the glial cells?

astrocytes

Which part of the neuron is responsible for generating a nerve impulse?

axon

Which of the following types of neurons carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS)?

motor

Which of the following types of glial cells monitors the health of neurons, and can transform into a special type of macrophage to protect endangered neurons?

microglia

Which of the following types of glial cells produces the myelin sheaths that insulate axons, or nerve fibers, in the central nervous system (CNS)?

oligodendrocytes

Which of the following peripheral nervous system (PNS) neuroglia form the myelin sheaths around larger nerve fibers in the PNS?

schwann cells

Which of the following are bundles of neurofilaments that are important in maintaining the shape and integrity of neurons?

neurofibrils

Which of the following is true of axons?

A neuron can have only one axon, but the axon may have occasional branches along its length.

Which of the following is the conducting region of the neuron?

axon

Which of the following are gaps found along a myelin sheath?

nodes of Ranvier

Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons?

the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system

Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of neurons?

multipolar

Which of the following is NOT true of association neurons?

Most association neurons are confined within the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

Neurons are also called nerve cells.

True

Unmyelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than myelinated fibers

False

The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.

False

During depolarization, the inside of the neuron’s membrane becomes less negative.

True

Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.

False

A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons.

True

Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.

True

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.

absolute refractory period

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?

voltage-gated channel

Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

myelin sheath

When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.

generator potential

Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?

They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.

the membrane potential has been reestablished

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.

negatively charged and contains less sodium

If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.

the impulse would spread bidirectionally

In which area of the neuron is an action potential initially generated?

C

Which of the following membrane regions would have significant numbers of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ ion channels?

C and D

Which of the following statements is true of both membrane potential responses shown in the graphs?

Both responses are examples of graded potentials

Which result of the stimulus applied is the likely cause of the response observed in the left graph?

opening of gated Na+ channels

Which of the following is expected to occur first if the membrane potential decrease shown in the graph were to reach the threshold value indicated at -55 mV?

opening of voltage gated Na+ channels

What change in a neuron is being measured in the graph?

the voltage measured across the axon membrane at a specific point as an action potential travels past

At which point of the illustrated action potential are the most gated Na+ channels open?

B

What major ion currents occur at the point along the action potential phase labeled D?

diffusion of K+ out of the axon through gated ion channels

Which of the following mechanisms is most significant in returning the membrane potential to the resting state (from point D to point E)?

closure of the voltage-gated K+ channels

At which of the points along the illustrated action potential can a second action potential be produced, but only with a stimulus significantly greater than that which produced the first?

D

In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

True

Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity

True

The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.

True

What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

frequency of action potentials

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

potassium

Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?

Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.

The __________ is due to the difference in K+ and Na+ concentrations on either side of the plasma membrane, and the difference in permeability of the membrane to these ions.

resting membrane potential

What type of stimulus is required for an action potential to be generated?

a threshold level depolarization

Which of the following is NOT a difference between graded potentials and action potentials?

Spatial summation is used to increase the amplitude of a graded potential; temporal summation is used to increase the amplitude of an action potential.

Which of the following is a factor that determines the rate of impulse propagation, or conduction velocity, along an axon?

degree of myelination of the axon

The sodium-potassium pump ejects two Na+ from the cell and then transports three K+ back into the cell in order to maintain the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium.

False

A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

True

An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.

synapse

Which of the following is false or incorrect?

A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.

hyperpolarization

Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?

A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.

Which of the following is true regarding a response to an excitatory event which might occur soon after the initial stimulus indicated in the graph?

An excitatory event may result in an action potential, but this will be less likely if the excitatory stimulus occurs during the response to the stimulus observed in the graph.

What event is depicted in the structure labeled A?

movement of Ca2+ into the interior of the axonal terminus through voltage-gated channels

Which of the following most accurately describes the involvement of the structure labeled B in synaptic signaling?

release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effects caused by binding of the ligand shown to the structure labeled C?

The membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane changes.

The box labeled D illustrates three mechanisms by which the effects of a neurotransmitter may be terminated. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT included in the figure?

reuptake of the neurotransmitter by transport into the postsynaptic cell

Signals generated at a chemical synapse are said to move only in the direction of the presynaptic cell to the postsynaptic cell. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanisms determining this one way transmission is INCORRECT?

Ions diffusing out of the presynaptic cell can enter the postsynaptic cell, but cannot reenter the presynaptic cell.

Select the correct statement regarding synapses.

The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?

amplitude of various sizes

Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential?

short distance depolarization

Which membrane potential occurs because of the influx of Na+ through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron?

excitatory postsynaptic potential

Which of the following is NOT true of an electrical synapse?

They are specialized for release and reception of chemical neurotransmitters.

Opening K+ or Cl- channels in a postsynaptic membrane would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

True

Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.

True

Which neuron circuit pattern is involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing?

reverberating circuit

What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus?

integration center

Which of the following is NOT a type of circuit?

pre-discharge circuits

Which of the following circuit types is involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as the sleep-wake cycle, breathing, and certain motor activities (such as arm swinging when walking)?

reverberating circuits

Which pattern of neural processing works in a predictable, all-or-nothing manner, where reflexes are rapid and automatic responses to stimuli in which a particular stimulus always causes the same response?

serial processing

Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ________.

are crucial for the development of neural connections

The RAS is comprised of specific pathways primarily in the limbic system.

False

The first obvious sign that the nervous system is forming in the embryo is the thickening of the surface ectoderm to form the neural plate.

True

The left cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant.

True

The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain.

True

The canal connecting the third and fourth ventricles and running through the midbrain is the foramen of Monro.

False

A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction are all symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei.

True

Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.

False

The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space.

True

One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing.

True

Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus.

False

Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.

Pons

The arbor vitae refers to ________.

Cerebellar white matter

The brain stem consists of the ________.

midbrain pons and medulla

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

temporal lobe

What cells line the ventricles of the brain?

ependymal cells

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

Medulla

Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?

Longitudinal fissure

Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?

executive suite

A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

sulcus

Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?

The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

The central sulcus separates which lobes?

frontal from parietal

Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?

fiber tracts

Which of the following is not a role of the basal nuclei?

initiating protective reflex actions

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.

gyro

The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________.

lateral sulcus

Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.

pyramidal and corticospinal

Broca’s area ________.

is considered a motor speech area

Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?

prefrontal cortex

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

metabolic waste such as urea

All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.

caudate nucleus

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.

reticular formation

Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________.

loss of proprioception

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.

vestibular nuclei

Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.

parkinsons disease

Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?

red nuclei

White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations except the ________.

cerebral cortex

Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.

premotor cortex

Which letter indicates the primary visual cortex?

D

Region A includes which of the following?

pre frontal cortex

The groove indicated by C is the _____________.

central sulcus

Which of the following is NOT associated with region B?

post central gyrus

The cortical regions indicated by E are involved in which functions?

The production and interpretation of language

The letter A in the figure below represents which of the following structures?

thalamus

What structure is indicated by B?

Corpus callosum

Which of the following describes the specific projection fibers indicated by C?

upper motor neurons

Nuclei relating to the startle reflex are located in the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain.

True

The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter, internal white matter, and the superior and inferior colliculi.

False

Commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon.

False

Which brain nucleus is the body’s "biological clock"?

suprachiasmatic nucleus

If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.

spinal cord may be affected

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and reflexes.

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.

visceral sensory area

Which part of the brain is the "executive suite" for all brain activity?

Cerebral cortex

Which parts of the brain constitute the "emotional brain" known as the limbic system?

cerebral and diencephalic structures

Which type of white matter fiber tract connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

commissures

Which part of the brain is considered the "gateway" to the cerebral cortex?

thalamus

Which of the following best describes the hypothalamus?

visceral control center of the body

Which part of the brain stem houses the reflex centers for respiration and cardiovascular functioning?

medulla oblongata

Which part of the brain processes inputs received from the cerebral motor cortex, brain stem nuclei, and various sensory receptors, and then uses this information to coordinate somatic motor output so that smooth, well-timed movements occur?

cerebellum

The middle primary brain vesicle, the mesencephalon, gives rise to which adult brain structure?

Midbrain

Which of the following is true of the cerebral hemispheres of the human brain?

The cerebral hemispheres account for about 83% of total brain mass.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of functional areas within the cerebral cortex?

visual areas

Which of the following are motor areas of the cerebral cortex that lie in the posterior part of the frontal lobes and control voluntary movement?

primary motor cortex; premotor cortex; Broca’s area; frontal eye field

Which of the following areas of the brain is responsible for spatial discrimination?

primary somatosensory cortex

Which of the following areas of the brain controls voluntary movement of the eyes?

frontal eye field

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?

secretion of the hormone melatonin

Which of the following regions of the brain provides the precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for the smooth, coordinated movements and agility that are needed for our daily living?

cerebellum

In general, information flows from sensory receptors to the appropriate primary sensory cortex.

True

The term cerebral dominance designates the hemisphere that is dominant for language.

True

The hypothalamus is the area where afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body are sorted out and then relayed to the appropriate area of the sensory cortex.

False

Which of the following is a characteristic of a coma but is NOT a characteristic of sleep?

continuously reduced mitochondrial activity in brain neurons

Which of the following does not occur during a narcoleptic sleep episode?

increased gastrointestinal activity

NREM sleep normally exhibits four distinct stages, which appear to alternate

True

A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.

False

The terms fainting and syncope describe the same thing.

True

Nondeclarative memories preserve the circumstances in which they are learned.

False

Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?

procedural

Declarative memory ________.

is the ability to learn specific information

Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?

Theta

The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.

Association

REM sleep is associated with ________.

temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm

Which statement about coma is true?

Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.

__________ causes a person to lapse abruptly into REM sleep from the awake state

Narcolepsy

Patients who have lesions involving Broca’s area __________.

Can understand language, but have difficulty speaking

Emotional state, rehearsal, association, and automatic memory are all factors that affect the transfer of information from short-term memory (STM) to long-term memory (LTM).

True

During meningitis, which of the following is the most likely to be a direct source of pathogens that may spread to the brain?

Pia mater

Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.

False

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space outside the brain.

True

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

arachnoid and pia

Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?

red blood cells

Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?

initiation of some nerve impulses

Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?

concussion

What CNS associated structure is illustrated in this figure?

choroid plexus

What process is indicated by the arrow on the right?

formation of cerebro-spinal fluid

Where is the illustrated structure located?

in each ventricle

Which type of glial cells are shown in this figure?

ependymal cells

Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus?

arachnoid matter

Which meninx is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution?

Pia mater

__________ forms a liquid cushion for CNS structures.

cerebrospinal fluid

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.

upper motor neurons

Parkinson’s disease results from degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the __________.

substantia nigra

__________ is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain in which beta-amyloid peptide deposits and neurofibrillary tangles appear and that ultimately results in dementia (mental deterioration).

Alzheimer’s disease

Cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.

True

The adult spinal cord ends between L1 and L2.

True

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.

the dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord

The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.

myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.

paraplegia

Second-order neurons of both the specific and nonspecific ascending pathways terminate in the ________.

thalamus

The neural fibers connecting structure A to the cerebral cortex can be described by which of the following?

third-order sensory neurons

What part of the spinal cord represents the collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal?

cauda equina

Select the true statement regarding first-order neurons.

First-order neuron cell bodies reside in a ganglion.

In spina bifida, the cerebrum and part of the brain stem never develop.

False

Which of the following is not a site where a tumor is likely to cause hydrocephalus?

pia mater

Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.

exteroceptors

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.

nociceptors

Which receptors adapt most slowly?

nociceptors

In the somatosensory system there are no third-order neurons in the cerebellum.

True

Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?

Segmental

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?

The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.

Select the correct definition.

Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.

Thalamus

Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?

Visceral identification

Transduction refers to conversion of ________.

Stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

Three main levels of neural integration operate in the somatosensory system. Which level involves processing in the sensory areas of the cerebral cortex?

Perceptual level

The first level of neural integration in the somatosensory system is the __________ level.

Receptor

__________ do NOT exhibit the property of adaptation.

Tonic receptors

Why might an individual experience the phenomenon known as "referred pain"?

Visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers.

Which of the following lists the hierarchy of motor control from lowest to highest level of control?

Segmental level, projection level, recommend level

Which structure is involved in the segmental level of motor control?

Spinal cord

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.

Afferent nerves

After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.

Schwann cells

Regeneration within the CNS ________.

is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

Select the statement that is most correct.

Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons

Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds each axon in a nerve?

endoneurium

Nerves that only carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS) are called __________.

motor nerves

__________ are collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

Ganglia

Choose the FALSE statement about nerves.

The majority of a nerve’s bulk is due to axons.

CNS nerve fibers lack the intrinsic capacity to regenerate, while PNS nerve fibers are able to regenerate.

True

The glossopharyngeal nerve is the only cranial nerve that contains sensory fibers.

False

The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves.

True

External strabismus and ptosis could be caused by damage to the oculomotor nerve.

True

The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.

Cervical

Bell’s palsy is ________.

characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?

Olfactory

The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________.

Trochlear

Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?

vestibulocochlear

A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?

Olfactory

David, an aspiring baseball player, was struck on the left side of his face with a fastball pitch. He was not wearing a safety helmet. His zygomatic arch was crushed, as well as parts of the temporal bone. Following the accident and reconstructive surgery, he noted that his left lower eyelid was still drooping and the corner of his mouth sagged. What nerve damage did he sustain?

Facial nerve damage on his left side

A nurse is asked about the cause of the excruciating pain of tic douloureux. How should the nurse answer?

The excruciating pain is caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve. Pressure on the trigeminal nerve root can turn normal stimuli, like tooth brushing, into painful stimuli.

The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

True

The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________.

Accessory

Which of the following cranial nerves carries only sensory information?

Olfactory

Which cranial nerve transmits information about our sense of equilibrium?

vestibulocochlear

There are __________ pairs of cranial nerves.

12

The majority of the cranial nerves attach to the __________.

Brain stem

Hiccups could occur if there was irritation or damage to the ______.

motor branches of ventral rami associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord

The brachial plexus can be palpated at the lower lateral border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Injury to the brachial plexus could cause weakness or paralysis to all of the following EXCEPT the ______.

sternocleidomastoid muscle

In carpal tunnel syndrome, there may be tingling and numbness in the thumb due to compression of the ______.

cutaneous branches of the median nerve

Damage to the ulnar nerve could result in the inability to ______.

Flex the wrist

If "wrist drop" were to appear, there would also be an increased probability of ______.

inability to extend the forearm

A herniated lumbar disc could interfere with ______.

skin sensations from the lateral thigh skin sensations from the medial thigh adduction of the thigh All of the listed responses are correct.

Sciatica has no direct affect on ______.

Control of the adductor longus

The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the meninges and blood vessels.

True

The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

True

The dorsal ramus consists only of motor fibers bringing information to the spinal cord.

False

Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves.

True

Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.

True

Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.

True

The obturator nerve branches from the sacral plexus.

False

Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?

phrenic

The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.

tibial

Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):

roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.

femoral

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.

sacral plexus

Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.

ulnar nerve

The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?

common fibular and tibial

The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?

musculocutaneous

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?

a complete loss of voluntary movement

Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Median

What type of nerve fibers are found in the ventral ramus of a spinal nerve?

both sensory and motor

The primary nerve that controls breathing is found in which nerve plexus?

cervical

Spinal nerves are all classified as __________.

Mixed nerves

The phrenic nerve serves the __________.

diaphragm

In carpal tunnel syndrome, the __________ is compressed.

Median nerve

The thickest and longest nerve in the body is the __________.

Sciatic nerve

A joint and the muscle that moves that joint tend to be innervated by different nerves.

False

The cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved in regulating motor activity, starting
and stopping movements, and coordinating postural movements.

True

What parts of the brain ultimately plan and coordinate complex motor activities?

cerebellum and basal nuclei

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?

receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

In the figure below, which letter points to an afferent neuron?

A

Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________.

Involuntary, yet maybe be modified by learned behavior

Somatic reflexes activate __________.

Skeletal muscle

A knee-jerk reflex that is unusually strong may be caused by ______.

transmission of excitatory signals from the brain to the neurons that form the femoral nerve

The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.

stretch reflex

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.

Golgi tendon reflex

In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.

extend

Which of the following muscles might be represented by that labeled F in the figure during the patellar (knee jerk) reflex?

rectus femoris

Which reflex is important for maintaining muscle tone?

Stretch reflex

Which reflex is triggered when a stranger suddenly grasps your arm?

crossed-extensor reflex

The knee-jerk reflex is an example of a __________.

stretch reflex

Which of the receptor types pictured function as exteroceptors?

A,C,D,E

__________ are receptors that can respond to changes in pressure.

Mechanoreceptors

Which of the following is NOT used to classify sensory receptors?

the number of dendritic endings present

Which of the following is not a way that sensory receptors are classified?

sensitivity to a stimulus

Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.

Pacinian corpuscles

Which type of sensory receptor allows us to feel an insect landing on our skin?

mechanoreceptor

Because the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found.

False

Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.

True

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

Sympathetic nervous system

The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.

All the neurotransmitters

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

parasympathetic division

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

skeletal muscles

Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

dilation of the pupils

Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

the cell bodies of motor neurons

Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion?

in the armpit

Which of the following outcome criteria show that a patient is effectively coping with a stressful problem?

Regular heart beat, unlabored breathing, warm and dry skin, constricted or normal pupils

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems.

False

The ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles only.

False

The ANS contains both sensory and motor neurons..

False

Which of the following is NOT an autonomic nervous system (ANS) effector?

skeletal muscle

Which of the following is NOT associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

emergency action

Which autonomic neurons release norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter?

sympathetic postganglionic neurons

Which of the following is a way in which the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar?

none of above

For which of the following activities is the parasympathetic nervous system generally responsible?

resting and digesting

Conduction through the autonomic efferent chain is faster than conduction in the somatic motor system.

False

The rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division of the ANS.

True

Splanchnic nerves are mixed motor and sensory nerves.

False

The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

True

The celiac ganglion is primarily associated with the sympathetic division.

True

Through direct neural stimulation, the sympathetic division promotes many metabolic effects via hormone release.

True

Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X contain postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system.

False

Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia only.

True

The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

True

Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.

True

Events recorded in a lie detector examination are controlled by the sympathetic division.

True

Cranial nerves III, VII, and IX supply the entire parasympathetic innervation of the head; however, only the preganglionic fibers lie within these three pairs of cranial nerves.

True

Because parasympathetic fibers never run in spinal nerves, rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division.

True

Rami communicantes are designated white or grey to indicate whether or not the fibers passing through them are myelinated.

True

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

sympathetic stimulation

Which of the following does not describe the ANS?

a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.

ciliary ganglion

Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.

dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.

X

Which of the following statements is not true?

Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?

first thoracic

The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.

oculomotor

Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.

splanchnic nerves

Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?

celiac

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.

visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?

synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.

increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.

tenth cranial nerve

The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________.

vagus nerve

Parasympathetic functions include ________.

lens accommodation for close vision

Which component of the ANS is characterized by ganglia located in or near effector organs?

parasympathetic division

Outflow of the sympathetic division occurs from which regions of the CNS?

thoracic and lumbar

Which organ receives major input from the sympathetic, but not parasympathetic, division?

skin

Which of the letters in the below figure indicates the vagus nerve?

A

The group of fibers indicated by E represents which of the following?

white rami communicates

Which of the following statements is true of the group of fibers indicated by the letter D?

D indicates fibers which bypass collateral ganglia and terminate within the adrenal gland.

The gray rami communicantes consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers.

False

All splanchnic nerves are sympathetic.

False

Most splanchnic nerves pass through the abdominal aortic plexus.

True

Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve?

those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

Which division of the nervous system has short preganglionic neurons?

sympathetic

Parasympathetic ganglia are also called __________ because of their location.

terminal ganglia

What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex?

a two-neuron motor pathway

Oculomotor nerves are responsible for which of the following functions?

focusing the eyes on close objects

As the vagus nerves pass into the ventral body cavity, they send branches to each of the following plexuses EXCEPT the __________.

inferior hypogastric plexus

Once a preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, one of three things can happen to the axon. Which of the following is NOT one of these three things?

The axon can course back into the spinal cord to synapse with preganglionic neurons in a different spinal segment.

The sympathetic division is also called the "thoracolumbar division" of the autonomic nervous system.

True

Symptoms of autonomic neuropathy could include any EXCEPT which of the following?

abnormal stretch reflex responses

Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.

True

Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.

False

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

hypothalamus

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.

NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

The parasympathetic tone ________.

determines normal activity of the urinary tract

Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.

is primarily under parasympathetic control

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

regulation of body temperature

Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.

hypothalamus

All visceral organs receive dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.

False

Where would you NOT find a cholinergic nicotinic receptor?

all parasympathetic target organs

Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic function?

reticular formation

Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

hypothalamus

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the heart?

an increase in heart rate

The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) normally have a(n) __________ relationship

antagonistic

Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

adrenal medulla

The two types of receptors that bind acetylcholine are __________ and __________ receptors.

nicotinic; muscarinic

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems?

Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation.

Which of the following target organs/systems is affected by the sympathetic nervous system, but is NOT affected by the parasympathetic nervous system?

cellular metabolism

Which of the following is NOT an antagonistic effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

increased cognitive functioning

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